2013年11月29日星期五

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Exam Code: 74-344
Exam Name: Microsoft (Managing Programs and Projects with Project Server 2013)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Your organization is performing a Portfolio Analysis in Project Server 2013.
You want to create a consolidated Portfolio Analysis optimization based on Cost and Resource data,
which will be part of the project information in Project Server 2013.
You plan to provide different simulations to your organization by using those parameters and
returning the best prioritization.
This organization has two different unit directors, who have the final decision on the consolidated
Portfolio Analysis results.
You need to provide the ability for your unit directors to modify the final portfolio selection.
Which element should you use?
A. Resource Requirements
B. Project/Proposal Priority
C. Field Cost Constraint
D. Project Original Start
E. Field Force In/Out
Answer: E

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NO.2 You are a program manager for an organization that uses Project Server 2013.
You are responsible for implementing a data warehouse that compiles relational data from many
business areas. Your project managers need to be able to manage the implementation for a
business area as separate projects, while still recognizing the dependencies at a program level.
You need to maintain ownership and authority of key program dates at the program level.
What should you do?
A. Create one project file for all project managers that includes the program-level tasks and each
sub-project's tasks. Require each area project manager to share the file, and add their dependencies
within their own tasks.
B. Create and publish a master project file with general durations for each business area sub-project,
and have the area project manager reconcile the dates in their own project manually each week.
C. Have the project managers create, save, and publish sub-projects for each area. Then insert them
into a program-level project, define dependencies, and save and publish the program-level project
to the server.
D. Create a master project and insert your projects, but never publish the file on the server.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Your work in a multinational corporation which uses Project Server 2013 to plan and control
projects in different business units. Each business unit has its own portfolio of projects but can
participate in strategic projects. The Project Management Office (PMO) has configured
Enterprise Project Types (EPTs) to create new products, launch marketing campaigns, and deploy
new lines of business tools to comply with the governance processes.
One of your roles is to identify new products. A local team in Singapore produces an effective idea
for a new product.
You need to create a business case for the next portfolio analysis. You need to gather general
information about the new product by efficiently collaborating with the local team.
What should you do?
A. Start a Project with the New Product EPT, which will trigger a workflow and allow you to display
and collect descriptive data and exchange information in the Project site.
B. Exchange information by sharing documents through SkyDrive Pro 2013.
C. Create a Team Site for the Singapore business unit for gathering information and assigning tasks.
Save the Team Site as a template for use within the New Product EPT.
D. Start a new enterprise project with the Microsoft SharePoint task list EPT, and grant immediate
access to the team so they can share information, assign tasks, and collaborate.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are a manager for a project your team has been working on for many weeks. Your project
is created as a Microsoft SharePoint task list project and is available in Project Center.
You have established the work breakdown structure (WBS), predecessors, assignments, and all of
the functionalities you can get from a SharePoint task list. However, the project has grown in detail,
and managing 200 activities has become difficult in Project Web App (PWA).
You need to ensure resources continue to report their progress in the same way.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose two.)
A. Activate the Enterprise Project Features for the SharePoint site task list and edit the tasks in PWA
project details.
B. Edit the project in Project Professional 2013 from the Project Center by clicking the icon of the
SharePoint task list project in the Indicators column.
C. Activate the Enterprise Project Features for the SharePoint site task list and edit the tasks in
Project Professional 2013.
D. Edit the project in Project Professional 2013 by synching the SharePoint task list so you can take
advantage of the extended features.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Your organization is a multinational corporation that uses Project Online to plan and control
the projects in different business units. Each business unit has its own portfolio of projects but can
participate in strategic projects.
The Research and Development (R&D) department has been struggling to gather and materialize
the new ideas. The Project Management Office (PMO) has the necessary templates and Enterprise
Project Types (EPTs) to start a formal process for any new product and to adhere to the general
guidelines. However, the R&D group does not want to register all of their ideas since many are
related to improvements and few of them could be materialized into projects.
You need to generate a solution that allows R&D to gather their ideas and facilitate the
materialization into Enterprise Projects.
What should you do?
A. Create a new EPT for the SharePoint Task List and name it R&D New Idea.
B. Within the same site collection of Project Web App (PWA), create a Custom SharePoint Item List
for ideation and requests with custom fields that easily match with Project custom fields when using
the Add SharePoint Sites command in Project Center.
C. Create a new EPT for Enterprise Projects and name it R&D New Idea.
D. Within the same site collection of Project Web App (PWA), create a custom list for ideation and
match list columns with Project custom fields when using the Create Projects command in the
SharePoint Item List.
Answer: D

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NO.6 You are a project manager in an organization that uses Project Server 2013.
All project managers have permission to edit all projects.
You edit a project in Project Web App (PWA), make changes, publish the project, and close your
browser.
A project manager calls you to report they are unable to open your project for edit in PWA. You
need to resolve this issue. What should you do?
A. Advise the project manager to open the project in Project Professional 2013.
B. Open Project Professional 2013 and use the Clean Up Cache button.
C. Open the Project Center in PWA and use the Check in My Projects button.
D. Open the Project Center in PWA and use the Project Permissions button.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Your organization has implemented Project Server 2013 to plan and control enterprise projects.
Your organization plans to perform a Portfolio Analysis for the first time on the Selection of Projects
to be done the next year. Business drivers, as well as a pair wise comparison of those business
drivers to set the business priorities, is the chosen method.
Your organization has provided you with a total of 35 business drivers, 30 of which are related in
some way.
You need to return with a valid set of drivers and prioritization to perform the analysis.
What should you do?
A. Perform a pairwise analysis on the drivers to identify relative priorities with key stakeholders.
B. Specify a priority value for each driver in order to complete the pairwise analysis.
C. Reduce the number of drivers to fewer than 12 and perform the prioritization with the key
stakeholders.
D. Assign priorities to each driver and normalize to 100 percent.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Your organization uses Project Online for project portfolio selection. The business drivers and
priorities are set, as are the main constraints to identify the efficient frontier.
The company has been collecting business cases for new proposals in which many projects may
solve the same business need. For example, the selection for a Customer Relationship Management
system has six different proposals, whereas only one is necessary to fulfill the business need.
You need to guarantee that the analysis will produce the most viable proposal in terms of cost and
resources and that no repetitive efforts exist in the portfolio selection.
What should you do?
A. Create a mutual exclusion dependency among all these projects.
B. Create a mutual inclusion dependency among all these projects.
C. Exclude these projects from the Portfolio Analysis to prevent a deviation from the main goal.
D. Exclude the related projects from the portfolio after the cost analysis with the Force in/out option.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A company deploys Project Server 2013 to perform a Portfolio Analysis, which they will use to
select the projects they will execute in the next fiscal period.
The company establishes the criteria to evaluate the portfolio components, and all business cases
must be evaluated under these parameters. When configuring Project Server 2013, the Project
Management Office (PMO) finds that the established criteria contain both qualitative and
quantitative elements, such as corporate reputation and internal rate of return (IRR).
You need to provide a system calculated approach to rank your strategic initiatives against each
other. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. Create a Business Driver library that captures the criteria in quantifiable impact statements that
are specific and measurable.
B. Perform a pairwise analysis on the driver set to identify relative priorities.
C. Perform a prioritization by assigning a relative weight to each value criterion and establish the
priorities.
D. Create a custom field for each criterion and ensure each value is captured for each project by
making the project fields as required.
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 You are a program manager for a company that uses Project Server 2013 and Project
Professional 2013. You manage the implementation of a data warehouse.
You have set up your program master project with subprojects for each implementation area.
You need to make edits to the dependencies between projects.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose two.)
A. View the subproject in Project Web App (PWA) and choose Edit. Then add your dependencies in
the predecessor's/successor's column.
B. Open the program-level project from Project Web App (PWA) by using Project Professional 2013.
Highlight the tasks you wish to link for a dependency with the control key. Then click the link button
on the tool bar.
C. Open the program-level project and the subproject from the Project Web App (PWA) and save
them to your local machine. Then add your predecessor's/successor's column in either file.
D. Open each of the required subprojects from the Project Web App (PWA) by using Project
Professional 2013 and create the link in the predecessor's/successor's column to the other projects
using the <>\Project Name\Task ID.
E. View the program-level project in Project Web App (PWA) and choose Edit. Then add your
dependencies in the predecessor's/ successor's column using the <>\Project Name\Task ID.
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: 074-353
Exam Name: Microsoft (Windows UX Design)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 When designing interactions for Windows 8 applications, which posture is most important to
design for?
A. Two hands holding the device, thumbs interacting with the device,
B. Device resting on table or lap, two hands interacting with the device.
C. One hand holding, one hand interacting with the device.
D. Whatever posture is relevant to application user scenarios.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the meaning of the phrase 'Design for touch first'?
A. Support for mouse and keyboard interaction is optional.
B. Prioritize touch interaction over mouse and keyboard interaction.
C. Ensure that users can directly manipulate content by using touch.
D. Always allow users to switch between touch mode and mouse-and-keyboard modes.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which attribute makes the Windows Store a good place for users to discover new applications?
A. availability from the Start screen
B. advertising support
C. flexible business model
D. transparent terms and onboarding process
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are designing a shopping cart for an e-commerce application. Users will commit to
purchase transactions by clicking a Confirm button. What is the recommended minimum target
width for this high-consequence action button?
A. 5 mm
B. 7 mm
C. 9 mm
D. 12 mm
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are designing a Windows 8 application.
You need to include animation.
What should you do?
A. Choose a free animation from the Windows 8 Animation Library.
B. Purchase an animation from the Windows 8 Animation Library.
C. Choose a free animation from the Windows 8 Animation Library, or create your own animation.
D. Create your own animation.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement about application names is true?
A. An application name must be unique throughout the store.
B. An application name must be unique within its category.
C. An application name must be unique within its market.
D. An application can have the same name as any other application in the store.
Answer: C

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NO.7 An advertiser is willing to pay a S2 CPM. What does CPM refer to in this context?
A. cost per 1,000 impressions
B. cost per 1,000,000 impressions
C. cost per impression
D. cost per month
Answer: A

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NO.8 When should you use a Crossfade animation?
A. When some of the information on the page is changing.
B. When semantic zoom is invoked.
C. When users launch the application.
D. when users start their Windows 8 devices.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which entry point is required in the Settings pane for network-capable applications?
A. User Login
B. Connection Status
C. Privacy Statement
D. Feedback
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which monetizing method usually generates the least revenue for applications that don't have
a strong pre-existing brand?
A. in-application purchase
B. third-party transaction
C. advertising
D. one-time purchase
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following export options, when specified in /etc/exports, will tell the server to use the
NFSv4 Pseudofilesystem?
A. fsid=2
B. fsid=0
C. fsid=3
D. fsid=1
Answer: B

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NO.2 You wish to revoke write access for all groups and named users on a file. Which command will make
the correct ACL changes?
A. setfacl x group:*:rx,user:*:rx afile
B. setfacl x mask::rx afile
C. setfacl m mask::rx afile
D. setfacl m group:*:rx,user:*:rx afile
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following are valid OpenVPN authentication modes? (Choose TWO correct answers)
A. S/Key
B. Kerberos
C. Static Key
D. Password
E. TLS
Answer: CE

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NO.4 Which directive in the OpenVPN client.conf specifies the remote server and port that the client should
connect to? (Provide only the directive, without any options or parameters)
Answer: remote

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NO.5 What does ntop use for data collection?
A. Network packets
B. Log files
C. Frame relay
D. SNMP
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the default UDP port for OpenVPN traffic?
Answer: 1194

NO.7 An administrator has created a mapping with the following command:
cryptsetup luksOpen /dev/sda1 cryptvol
and has set three different keys. Which command below will delete the first key?
A. cryptsetup luksDelKey /dev/sda1 0
B. cryptsetup luksDelKey /dev/sda1 1
C. cryptsetup luksDelKey /dev/mapper/cryptvol 1
D. cryptsetup luksDelKey /dev/mapper/cryptvol 0
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which LUKS action, when supplied to the cryptsetup command, will initialize a LUKS partition and set
the initial key? (Provide only the action name)
Answer: luksFormat

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NO.9 In which of the following scenarios MUST an administrator use ethernet bridging instead of routing
when configuring an OpenVPN site? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. Some OpenVPN clients will be installed on laptops and must be able to connect from different
locations.
B. NetBIOS traffic must be able to traverse the VPN without implementing a WINS server.
C. The IPv4 protocol is required.
D. It will be necessary to use an MTU setting other than the default.
E. The IPX protocol is required.
Answer: BE

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NO.10 When adding additional users to a file's extended ACLs, what is true about the default behaviour of
the ACL mask for the file?
A. The mask is modified to be the union of all permissions of the file owner, owning group and all named
users and groups.
B. The mask is left unchanged.
C. If required, a warning is printed indicating that the mask is too restrictive for the permissions being
granted.
D. The mask is modified to be the union of all permissions of the owning group and all named users and
groups.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What command will remove the dmcrypt mapping named cryptvol? (Provide the command with any
options and parameters)
Answer: /sbin/cryptsetup remove crypt-vol cryptsetup remove crypt-vol

NO.12 Which of the following are valid dmcrypt modes? (Choose THREE correct answers)
A. XTS
B. ESSIV
C. GMR
D. KWG
E. LRW
Answer: ABE

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NO.13 Which of the following are common techniques for securing a sendmail server? (Select THREE correct
answers)
A. Maintain user accounts in an LDAP directory.
B. Enable TLS.
C. Disable VRFY.
D. Run sendmail in a chroot'd environment.
E. Disable USRLKUP.
Answer: BCD

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NO.14 Linux Extended Attributes include attribute classes. Which of the following are included in the
defined attribute classes? (Select THREE correct answers)
A. default
B. system
C. owner
D. trusted
E. user
Answer: BDE

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NO.15 An administrator has successfully configured a cryptographic volume for dmcrypt, and has added the
following line to /etc/fstab:
/dev/mapper/cryptvol /media/crypt auto defaults 0 0
Upon booting the system, the error message "mount: special device /dev/mapper/cryptvol does not exist"
is displayed. What configuration file has the administrator forgotten to edit? (Provide the full path and
filename)
Answer: /etc/crypttab

NO.16 SELinux has just been installed on a Linux system and the administrator wants to use SELinux in
permissive mode in order to audit the various services on the system. What command will switch
SELinux into permissive mode?
A. setenforce 0
B. /etc/init.d/selinux stop
C. selinux passive
D. /etc/init.d/selinux startpassive
Answer: A

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NO.17 What command will list basic information about all targets available to cryptmount? (Provide the
command with any options or parameters)
Answer: cryptmount --list /usr/bin/cryptmount -l /usr/bin/cryptmount --list cryptmount -l

NO.18 An administrator has just configured an OpenVPN client. Upon starting the service, the following
message is displayed:
TLS Error: TLS key negotiation failed to occur within 60 seconds
Which of the following statements is true?
A. The client was unable to establish a network connection with the server.
B. The client was able to establish a network connection with the server, however TLS key negotiation
failed, resulting in a fallback to SSL.
C. The client was able to establish a network connection with the server, however TLS and SSL security
are not enabled.
D. The client was able to establish a network connection with the server, however TLS key negotiation
took longer than 60 seconds, indicating that there may be a problem with network performance.
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is true about the permissions for the file afile given the following output from getfacl? (Select
TWO correct answers)
% getfacl afile
# file: afile
# owner: matt
# group: support
user::rwx
user:hugh:rw
group::r
group:staff:rx
mask::rwx
other::r
A. Anyone in the support group will be able to read and execute the file.
B. The user hugh will be able to read the contents of the file.
C. Anyone in the users group will be able to read the file.
D. The user matt will not be able to edit this file.
E. Anyone in the staff group will be able to read and execute the file.
Answer: BE

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NO.20 You are certain that your kernel has been compiled with ACL support, however, when you try to set an
ACL on a file, you get the following output:
% setfacl m user:hugh:r afile.txt
setfacl: afile.txt: Operation not supported
What is the most likely reason for this problem?
A. There is an error in the command line parameters.
B. There is no user on the system named hugh.
C. The partition has not been mounted with the acl option.
D. The file afile.txt doesn't exist.
Answer: C

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NO.1 In keepalived, what keyword starts the configuration section for one of the failover servers?
A. lvs_server
B. virtual_server
C. vrrp_instance
D. vrrp_sync_group
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the name of the main configuration file for the Xen Daemon, xend? (Please enter the file name
without any path information).
Your Response
Answer. /etc/xen/xend-config.sxp xend-config.sxp

NO.3 What actions are permitted by a hypervisor? (Select THREE correct answers)
A. A hypervisor may install a Guest OS.
B. A hypervisor may perform privileged tasks on behalf of the Guest OS.
C. A hypervisor may shape traffic on the bridged network devices for the Guest OS.
D. A hypervisor may directly manipulate memory.
E. A hypervisor may execute privileged CPU instructions.
Answer: B,D,E,

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NO.4 Which one of the following statements about STONITH is NOT true?
A. You can use hardware devices such as HP ILO or Dell DRAC management boards for STONITH.
B. Resources will migrate only after a STONITH operation has been issued successfully.
C. It is recommended to use STONITH to increase the integrity of the cluster.
D. Null STONITH is a good solution if you have guaranteed the integrity of the file systems used in your
cluster in another way.
E. When setting up SSHSTONITH, you should use a dedicated communications link for the STONITH
traffic in the cluster.
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which of the following are the primary components to Conga? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. luci
B. ipvsadm
C. cman
D. fenced
E. ricci
Answer: A,E,

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NO.6 Which of the following statements are true when comparing full virtualization and paravirtualization in
Xen? (Select THREE correct answers)
A. Paravirtualization demands changes to operating systems designed to be installed directly on the
hardware when using those operating systems as guests.
B. It is possible to use, without changes, operating systems designed to be installed directly on the
hardware when using it as guest in full virtualization.
C. The number of virtual CPUs can be configured only in the full virtualization mode.
D. Paravirtualization depends on special CPU features like IntelVT or AMDV.
E. The virtual network resources are available for both types of virtualization.
Answer: A,B,E,

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NO.7 Using Linux Virtual Server (LVS) provides which of the following features? (Select TWO correct
answers)
A. Balancing load across real servers
B. Taking over for fenced nodes
C. Stopping services on other nodes when one node has a stopped service
D. Checking and maintaining the integrity of services on real servers
E. Starting and stopping virtual machines as needed
Answer: A,D,

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NO.8 Which function is not supported in a GFS2 filesystem?
A. repair
B. grow
C. shrink
D. withdraw
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which option is missing in the command below to perform a Xen migration of a domain without pausing
the virtual machine? (Please specify only the option in short or long form)
xm migrate vm1 ____ 192.168.1.1
Your Response
Answer. -l --live l live

NO.10 A configuration file for a Xen virtual machine was created in the directory /etc/xen with filename
slack.cfg. What is the command to start the virtual machine defined in this configuration file including
displaying its console on screen?
A. xm start slack
B. xm create slack.cfg showconsole
C. xm create slack.cfg
D. xm start slack.cfg c
E. xm create slack.cfg c
Answer: E

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NO.11 How many virtual CPUs can KVM support in SMP guests?
A. 32
B. 8
C. 2
D. 16
E. 4
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the the following cluster infrastructure services are provided by heartbeat (versions 3 and
post 2.1)? (Specify TWO correct answers)
A. membership
B. communication
C. advanced resource management
D. STONITH
E. service migration
Answer: A,B,

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NO.13 Which one of the following is NOT a required component for running an OCFS2 file system resource in
a Pacemaker environment?
A. A clone resource for the OCFS2 file system
B. quorum
C. dlm
D. clvm
E. o2cb
Answer: D

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NO.14 Why does this virtual machine NOT boot?
kvm drive file=sd
a.img,if=scsi m 128
A. KVM cannot be started on the command line.
B. The boot=on parameter is missing in the drive definition.
C. KVM does not use the drive option; it uses hda instead.
D. It is missing a cdrom
Answer: B

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NO.15 In order to have all requests matching the ACL acl_static_content directed to the servers defined in
server_pool, which HAProxy directive is required in the following declaration? (Specify ONLY the
missing directive)
______ server_pool if acl_static_content
Your Response
Answer. use_backend

NO.16 Which of the following are Pacemaker components? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. ccmd
B. crmd
C. heartbeat
D. pengine
E. keepalived
Answer: B,D,

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NO.17 Which configuration setting ultimately determines which server will be the MASTER with keepalived?
A. advert_int
B. state
C. type
D. priority
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which one of the following statements is true about the live migration feature of Xen?
A. It requires that the source and destination hosts have access, with same rights, to the device that
exports the virtual machine file system.
B. It is used to migrate the file system of virtual machines between two hosts on the same network
segment, ensuring data integrity during the migration process.
C. It is recommended that the virtual machines be restarted after migration to ensure that network settings
will be updated.
D. It requires that the virtual machines are turned off to ensure that data stored in the RAM of the virtual
machine will not be lost during the migration.
E. It is used to convert physical servers into virtual machines without having to stop the physical servers.
Answer: A

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NO.19 RBD is equivalent to a networked version of what RAID level?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following are common uses of virtualization? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. Operating System virtualization
B. User virtualization
C. Identification virtualization
D. Authentication virtualization
E. Storage virtualization
Answer: A,E,

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Exam Code: 190-848
Exam Name: Lotus (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8: Building the Infrastructure)
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Total Q&A: 106 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Which task in a Domino cluster checks for availability of other servers in the cluster?
A.Cluster Manager
B.Cluster Updater
C.Cluster Operator
D.Cluster Load Balancer
Correct:A

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NO.2 Each time David restarts the agent manager, certain agents that should only run once are
running unscheduled. Which of the following steps may he perform to alleviate the issue while
still allowing the agents to run as required?
A.Set the agents to run on server restart only.
B.Remove the server name from the agent security tab.
C.Set the agent manager not to start by removing it from the notes.ini server tasks line.
D.Make copies of the necessary agents into a new database and move that database out of the data
directory until necessary.
Correct:A

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NO.3 You wish to resolve an issue without user intervention based on a received event in DDM. Which
handler notification method provides this functionality?
A.Pager
B.Broadcast
C.Run an Agent
D.Log to Database
Correct:C

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NO.4 If the Fault Analyzer task locates duplicate fault reports, what is the next step the task will take?
A.The new crash is reported as a response to the original crash
B.The new crash is not reported due to it matching a previous fault reported
C.The new crash is reported as a new document but a doclink is created to the original
D.The new crash is reported as a new document and no reference to matching documents can be created
Correct:A

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NO.5 A special type of application probe for DDM always runs and requires no configuration. Which
of the following are monitored by this probe?
A.Agent security rights
B.Disabled agents for the compact task
C.Agents that terminate abnormally when the maximum time to run is exceeded
D.SQL query operations performed on databases that are not full-text indexed
Correct:C

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NO.6 Directory assistance in Lotus Domino 8 enables you to specify when a secondary directory
must only be used for authentication. This provides which of the following features?
A.This blocks email from being forwarded to adjacent domains.
B.This avoids NAMELookups to reduce the number of ambiguous Name dialog boxes.
C.This help you validate your choice of host name for receiving authentication requests.
D.This scans group member lists to ensure that each member exists in an available directory that is
configured in directory assistance.
Correct:B

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NO.7 Latrice set up domain searching. Which one of the following is referenced when a domain
search is made?
A.Domain Catalog
B.Database Catalog
C.Domino Directory
D.Directory Assistance
Correct:A

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NO.8 Due to space considerations on her Domino server, Anissa has had to locate new databases
under a folder not in the Domino data directory. Instead she has placed them on the F drive. Which
one of the following should Anissa use to make these databases accessible to the users?
A.Database Link
B.Directory Link
C.Profile Document
D.File Protection Document
Correct:B

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NO.9 You have elected to create a marker so clients can update their reference to a database called
MARKETING.NSF. You did not select a designated destination server. Which of the following is the
result of this action?
A.The client will remove the bookmark reference for the database.
B.The client will search all servers in the domain for a replica of the database and modify the bookmark.
C.The client will search all known cluster servers only for a replica of the database and modify the
bookmark.
D.The client will prompt the user to specify servers to search for a replica of the database and modify the
bookmark.
Correct:A

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NO.10 The Domino administrator has locked a DB2 group. He then manually deletes five DB2 enabled
databases from the Domino server in that group. Which of the following statements is true in this
scenario?
A.He may now add five databases to the group.
B.The group may not have more databases added.
C.He must compact the Domino server to defragment the DB2 group.
D.He may now add five databases to the group if their total size does not exceed the size of databases
removed.
Correct:B

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NO.11 What is the name of the shared resource that lets you define a DB2 view of Notes data?
A.DB2 Access view (DAV)
B.Notes Access view (NAV)
C.Lotus Access View (LAV)
D.Domino Object view (DOV)
Correct:A

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NO.12 What are the two types of DDM Web probes?
A.Uptime and Failure
B.Logging and Failure
C.Performance and Enabled
D.Best Practices and Configuration
Correct:D

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NO.13 Domino Domain Monitoring (DDM) enhanced events contains which of the following?
A.Specific target information only
B.Events generated by an event probe only
C.Events generated by an event generator only
D.All of the above
Correct:D

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NO.14 Thomas has moved the container for the DB2 database group titled HRApp7 to a new disk
volume on the Unix server. Which of the following steps must be performed in Domino for users to
maintain access to the DB2 data store?
A.The users must remove and re-add the databases to their bookmarks
B.The administrator must update all the view indexes of the DB2 containers
C.The reconciliation tool must be run to update any links in the DB2 containers
D.The new containers must be enabled for transaction logging and the new logs completed before users
can access the container
Correct:C

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NO.15 Jose set up Web authentication using primary and secondary directories. Which one of the
following describes the order in which he set up directories to be searched?
A.Domino primary directory, then Domino secondary directories. This is the only option available.
B.Domino primary directory, then either Domino or LDAP secondary directories. The administrator can
specify the order of secondary searches.
C.LDAP primary directory, then LDAP secondary directory, and then Domino secondary directories. This
is the order in which secondary searches must be made.
D.Domino primary directory, then Domino secondary directory, and then LDAP secondary directories.
This is the order in which secondary searches must be made.
Correct:B

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NO.16 Which of the following ports uses the server document for binding while the rest require entries
in the notes.ini file?
A.ICM
B.HTTP
C.SMTP
D.LDAP
Correct:B

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NO.17 A DDM application probe performs which of the following?
A.Checks Web settings
B.Probes agent schedules
C.Checks server replication
D.Probes database operations
Correct:B

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NO.18 You have noticed that the mail-in database that stores server diagnostic information is growing
large. It is possible to limit messages for automatic diagnostic data collection by adjusting what
setting?
A.Diagnostic file patterns
B.Maximum size of diagnostic message including attachments (in MB)
C.Minimum size of collection message including attachments (in MB)
D.The name of the mail-in database used for receiving automatic diagnostic data
Correct:B

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NO.19 The collected probe results in a DDM Collection Hierarchy database are replicated when which
of the following occurs?
A.A collection server initiates a push replication with a spoke server.
B.A collection server is notified about the change in an event state on a monitored server.
C.A collection server receives the console command 'probe xxx' where xxx is a remote server.
D.A collection server obtains a SMTP message in the ddm.nsf database notifying it to pull new events.
Correct:B

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NO.20 Mike, the Domino administrator, has configured Rooms and Resources across a cluster. When
multiple replicas of the resource database exist in the cluster, where is processing handled if all
the servers are available?
A.The user's home server
B.The resource's home server
C.The first cluster server available
D.The server closest to the physical location of the resource
Correct:B

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Exam Code: 190-775
Exam Name: Lotus (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 7 Implement+)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 The decision was made by ACME management to not encrypt databases on the Domino server
that runs on Windows 2003. Numerous people have access to the room where the server is
located, as well as local server access. A security policy was established that states the Domino
server console must be password protected. Which of the following steps should be taken to
enable this feature?
A.Lock the Domino server service in Windows 2003 with a password only known to the Domino
administrators
B.Issue a Set Secure command on the Domino server console with a password only known to the Domino
administrators
C.Create a console.lck file on the Domino server that contains a password only known to the Domino
administrators
D.Open the server console from an administrator client with full access administration and issue a Lock
Server command with a password only known to the Domino administrators
Correct:B

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NO.2 Upon logging in, the Domino server continues to send the username and password of Ted with
the URL for continuous requests. The Domino web server has cached the username and
password in response to which of the following configurations established by the Domino
administrator?
A.Area
B.Realm
C.Domain
D.Response
Correct:B

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NO.3 Sam has been configuring key rollover in his customers Domino domain. Key Rollover will
occur after 365 days as the maximum allowable age for any key. Where is key rollover configured
for users?
A.Person document - Administration tab
B.Desktop Settings policy document - Security tab
C.Server Configuration document - Change Control tab
D.Security Settings policy document - Keys and Certificates tab
Correct:D

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NO.4 The server access fields define access to the Notes server via which of the following protocols?
A.NRPC and HTTP
B.NRPC and LDAP
C.NRPC and SMTP
D.NRPC and DIIOP
Correct:A

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NO.5 Select the notes.ini parameter that denies any user from accessing a server in full access
administrator mode.
A.SET_RESTRICT_FULLACCESS=1
B.RESTRICT_FULLADMIN_ACCESS=1
C.SECURE_DISABLE_FULLADMIN = 1
D.FULLACCESS_ADMIN_RESTRICTED=1
Correct:C

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NO.6 A security policy push has been done to all users of a large toy company. This new security
policy controls many aspects of the user's password, including limiting the number of repeating
characters and restricting the user from providing any of their name in the password. If a user
chooses not to modify their password or use any of the restrictions at the time of being prompted,
what is the next step that occurs?
A.Notes will continue to prompt the user on a scheduled basis until the password is changed
B.The Notes client shuts down after warning the user they are not complying with the password policy
C.The designated administrator, as defined in the security policy settings document, receives a
notification email about that user
D.The user generates a forced Adminp request to change their password to the default that was specified
in the security policy settings document
Correct:B

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NO.7 Data is not being successfully sent to a cgi program on the Domino web server by Jenny, a user.
Another user in the Bakery department can start a program successfully on the web server after
logging in. One of the members of LocalDomainAdmins, Brian, tests the same cgi script and has
sent data successfully. Which of the following would be the correct settings to allow Jenny to
send data to the cgi program?
A.Set Anonymous to Read, -Default- to Author and LocalDomainAdmins to Manager
B.Set LocalDomainAdmins to Editor, -Default- to Get and Anonymous to No Access
C.Set -Default- to Post, Anonymous to Get and LocalDomainAdmins remain the same
D.Set -Default- to Reader, Anonymous to Depositor and LocalDomainAdmins to Upload
Correct:C

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NO.8 John, the Domino administrator, wishes to deny access to a server named Mail14 for a user
named Randy. John also wants to verify that Randy cannot view a list of names that have been
denied server access to Mail14. Which of the following provides that functionality?
A.ID lockout for Randy's id
B.Forced password change for Randy's id
C.Notes ID password recovery for Randy's id
D."Not access server" field in the Mail14 server document
Correct:A

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NO.9 Jeff and Connie are Domino developers sharing the same test server called Dev1/Trans.
-Connie has signed an agent to run on the invoker of the agent's behalf. She then attempts to run
this agent from her Notes client. The agent fails to run. -Jeff, shortly after, has signed an
identically coded agent to run on behalf of the invoker also. He successfully runs this agent from
a test in Internet Explorer. -The field granting the ability to run agents on behalf of the invoker is
blank in the server document Which of the following explains the reason the agent successfully
ran for Jeff and not Connie?
A.Agents set to run on behalf of the invoker cannot run from a Notes client
B.Agents may only be signed to be invoked on behalf of the server itself. Connie did not sign hers in that
manner
C.Agents set to run on behalf of the invoker may only be run scheduled. Jeff had established a schedule
for his agent
D.Only one agent may be run on any server that is configured to run on behalf of the invoker. By Jeff
signing his agent later, it overrides Connie's as the single agent to run of that type
Correct:A

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NO.10 You have been asked to make a comprehensive administration structure that contains restricted
rights for certain groups of administrators. While maintaining the rights to remotely administer
Unix servers, which of the following Domino administrator access levels is not automatically
granted Manager access to databases on the server, nor does it provide any access to the Web
Administrator database?
A.Administrators
B.Console administrator
C.Database administrators
D.Full access administrator
Correct:C

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NO.11 The names of administrators who are allowed to recover IDs is stored in what location?
A.The certifier id file
B.The server notes.ini file
C.The administrator client notes.ini file
D.The certifier document in the Domino Directory
Correct:A

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NO.12 You are attempting to establish SSO in your domain across multiple servers. The time-out for
SSO was configured to expire after 45 minutes. The time during which any of your users are
logged in via a Web client, defined by a cookie, is which of the following?
A.Thread
B.Session
C.Instance
D.Variable
Correct:B

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NO.13 A phone call prompts you to immediately revoke an Internet certificate due to a compromised
key. After verifying the caller as a trusted source, what database will you access to revoke the
Internet certificate that was compromised?
A.The CA database for the certifier that issued the certificate
B.The ICL database for the certifier that issued the certificate
C.The CRL database for the certifier that issued the certificate
D.The CERT database for the certifier that issued the certificate
Correct:B

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NO.14 You have assigned Alicia to be the certificate authority administrator for your Domino domain.
As your organization grew, she spends more time than desired in managing the CA process. To
assist her, you enable Kendra as a Registration Authority. Of the below rights, which will Kendra
be able to perform with her role as Registration Authority by default?
A.Modify certifiers
B.Create certifiers
C.Enforce certificate access
D.Revoke Internet certificates
Correct:D

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NO.15 A Smartcard for Holly was destroyed. This card contained certain Notes private keys she had
shifted to the Smartcard to provide tighter security. Which of the following is the best option for
establishing a new Smartcard for her?
A.Have Holly access all previous applications with a newly created id file to rebuild the private keys
B.Reregister Holly and create a new Notes id file that will be Smartcard enabled, all previous keys are lost
C.Obtain the last Notes id for Holly from the recovery database for the certifier and create a new
Smartcard
D.Perform a name change on another existing user with the same access to Holly's name. Copy all the
private keys and rename the user back
Correct:C

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NO.16 Andy issued an unscheduled CRL for the certificate for James
Addington/Operations/TotalTelevision, believing that there was a security compromise. Which
server command did he issue for the immediate revocation to process?
A.tell ca CRL push certifier number
B.tell ca CRL issue certifier number
C.tell ca deactivate certifier number
D.tell ca delete key certifier number
Correct:B

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NO.17 Erika is configuring the initial Domino server for her organization. Her goal is to restrict users
from modifying any attributes of the Workstation ECL, but she is yet to create the Administration
ECL for the domain. What settings will the client receive until an Administration ECL is created?
A.The Workstation ECL is created with default settings that are built into the Notes client
B.The Workstation ECL remains blank until an Administration ECL for the domain is created and saved
C.The Workstation ECL is created with default settings that define the Administration ECL until one is
manually created and saved
D.The Workstation ECL cannot be created and a warning is issued upon client setup to that effect. The
client configuration will not continue until a default Administration ECL is defined
Correct:A

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NO.18 Users have had recovery information embedded into their id file since version 5.0.8 of Notes
and Domino. They currently run version 7.0.1 of Notes and Domino. However, Joshua is moving
from the Notes administration team and into another group. Matthew will take his place. Which of
the following describes the steps necessary to remove Joshua and add Matthew in his place as a
proper id recovery authority for the certifier utilized for user creation and recertification?
A.Matthew and Joshua will have no steps to perform. Adding the new administrator to the administrators
group in the Domino Directory automatically recertifies the users
B.Joshua must issue an Adminp request to "remove admin from certifier" from the Domino Administrator
client and then Matthew must enter an Adminp request to "add admin to certifier". Both must be approved
by another administrator before recertifying users
C.Recovery information in the certifier id utilized to certify and register users must be modified to add
Matthew and remove Joshua. A recertification of the users under that certifier must occur. Notes 7.0.1 will
NOT prompt the user to accept the change in recovery information
D.The certifier in question must have all recovery authorities removed. A recertification of existing users
must occur to accept the removal of Joshua. Then the certifier must be modified again to add Matthew as
a recovery authority and the users recertified a final time. They will then accept Matthew as a recovery
authority when prompted.
Correct:C

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NO.19 Notes users are able to generate key rollover requests without the use of a security settings
policy document. While generating the request, what are the two options the user has in
generating key rollover?
A.ID recertification and ID recovery
B.Key enhancement and new key generation
C.Public key change and private key change
D.Authentication protocol and mail protocol
Correct:D

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NO.20 From the following, select the listing which provides agent manager rights ranked in order
from the highest to the lowest.
A.Run unrestricted methods and operations Sign agents to run on behalf of someone else Sign agents to
run on behalf of the invoker of the agent Run restricted LotusScript/Java agents Run simple and formula
agents Sign script libraries to run on behalf of someone else
B.Run simple and formula agents Sign agents to run on behalf of someone else Run restricted
LotusScript/Java agents Run unrestricted methods and operations Sign script libraries to run on behalf of
someone else Sign agents to run on behalf of the invoker of the agent
C.Sign script libraries to run on behalf of someone else Sign agents to run on behalf of the invoker of the
agent Sign agents to run on behalf of someone else Run unrestricted methods and operations Run
restricted LotusScript/Java agents Run simple and formula agents
D.Sign agents to run on behalf of the invoker of the agent Run restricted LotusScript/Java agents Sign
agents to run on behalf of someone else Run unrestricted methods and operations Run simple and
formula agents Sign script libraries to run on behalf of someone else
Correct:A

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