2014年1月30日星期四

Juniper certification JN0-380 best exam questions and answers

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Exam Code: JN0-380
Exam Name: Juniper (Wireless LAN, Specialist (JNCIS-WLAN))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 86 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 What is the hardware requirement for a RingMaster client?
A. Intel/AMD x86-compatible dual core processor, 2.0Ghz, 2GB RAM, 512 MB HD space
B. Intel/AMD x86-compatible single core processor, 2.0Ghz, 2GB RAM, 512 MB HD space
C. Intel/AMD x86-compatible single core processor, 2.0Ghz, 1GB RAM, 1024 MB HD space
D. Intel/AMD x86-compatible dual core processor, 1.0Ghz, 1GB RAM, 512 MB HD space
Answer: A

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6. During the installation of RingMaster, you receive the installation error: "HTTPS Server port is
already in use. Please select another port."
What should you do to resolve this issue?
A. Change the HTTPS Server port number to 443.
B. Change the HTTPS Server port number so that it does not conflict with other applications.
C. Restart the installation process so that RingMaster can resolve the issue.
D. Change the SNMP Trap Receiver port to 162.
Answer: B

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7. You are asked to troubleshoot a communication problem between a WLC and a RADIUS server.
You verified that the RADIUS server is reachable from the WLC.
Which WLC CLI command would be used for troubleshooting RADIUS connectivity?
A. rfping
B. show authentication
C. ping
D. radping
Answer: D

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8. In an auditorium, you have 200 wireless clients connecting to the wireless network. You want
to
configure RF load balancing to distribute client sessions across multiple APs in the area.
Which two parameters are configurable to achieve this? (Choose two.)
A. setting strictness
B. configuring auto-tune
C. defining transmit rates
D. setting band preference
Answer: A,D

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9. You want to provide secure wireless services to one set of clients on your network and allow
open
access services to your guest clients. You need to configure service profiles for each type of
access to the network.
Which three methods are used to accomplish this? (Choose three.)
A. Configure one service per WLA.
B. Configure an encryption type.
C. Configure IP addresses.
D. Configure SSIDs.
E. Configure VLANs.
Answer: B,D,E

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10. Multiple users are complaining that their wireless connections are not working.
Which RingMaster screen would the administrator use for troubleshooting?
A. Alarms
B. Clients
C. Monitor
D. Verification
Answer: C

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NO.2 A user repeatedly calls in to the Help desk complaining about their wireless connection.
Which actions would test the user's wireless connectivity from RingMaster?
A. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
run the Location History option to find out if the client is near a functioning access point.
B. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
run the RF ping test to determine RSSI and retry counts to verify the RF environment being
reported by the AP to which the client is connected.
C. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
choose to terminate the client from the wireless network so they can reestablish a new session.
D. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
add the client to the Watched Client list to gather additional data on the clients signal strength and
data throughput.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the maximum allowed configurable SSIDs per radio?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Juniper Networks WLA model supports spectrum analysis?
A. WLA371
B. WLA422
C. WLA532
D. WLA632
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have installed your AP in the proper location on your network. The AP needs to obtain
configuration information from a controller before it can support wireless clients.
What are three methods that an AP uses to do this? (Choose three.)
A. ICMP ping
B. Keepalive packets
C. DNS Lookup
D. L2 Broadcast
E. DHCP Option 43
Answer: C,D,E

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Exam Code: JN0-690
Exam Name: Juniper (Junos Troubleshooting)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 In the Junos OS, which type of file dumps the program's environment in the form of
memory pointers, instructions, and register data to a file in the event of a panic or other serious
malfunction?
A. log file
B. backup file
C. configuration file
D. core file
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which operational CLI command would you use to display information about the system and
software processes?
A. show system
B. show chassis
C. show route
D. show cli
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is correct about troubleshooting?
A. You must always have a complete understanding of the problem before you begin gathering any
information.
B. You must be sure the problem will be resolved before attempting a potential solution.
C. The problem must be reproducible before attempting a potential solution.
D. Establishing a network baseline is important to help understand when something is not working.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three steps are involved in troubleshooting any problem? (Choose three.)
A. Reboot the device.
B. Clearly define the problem.
C. Outline the expected behavior.
D. Determine who made the changes.
E. Isolate the problem.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.5 Which CLI command applies the candidate configuration to the active configuration?
A. load
B. merge
C. copy run start
D. commit
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which operational CLI command would you use to troubleshoot hardware-related problems?
A. show system
B. show chassis
C. show route
D. show cli
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which command would be helpful in determining the time at which the protocols started?
A. show route
B. show chassis hardware
C. show configuration
D. show system uptime
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the name of the routing protocol process on a Junos OS device?
A. chassisd
B. snmpd
C. rpd
D. cosd
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which operational command would be used to display diagnostic data and alarms for 1 /10/100
Gigabit Ethernet optical transceivers?
A. show interfaces extensive
B. show interfaces diagnostics optics
C. show chassis alarms
D. show interfaces controller
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which CLI command is used to restart a software process?
A. restart
B. reboot
C. commit
D. reload
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 630-007
Exam Name: ISM (C.P.M. Module 3: Value Enhancement Strategies)
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Total Q&A: 285 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 You work as a purchaser at KillTest. You are negotiating a contract for which
production and delivery will be stretched out over a 24-month period. You want to
get the best price. Which of the following should you include in the contract?
A. A provision to accept all material produced under the contract.
B. A provision to cover changes in rates for material and labor.
C. A provision to eliminate penalties for late deliveries.
D. A provision to cover unforeseen production delays.
Answer. B

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NO.2 Which of the following do NOT provide economic forecasts?
A. ISM Report On Business(r).
B. Bureau of Labor Statistics.
C. Department of Commerce.
D. Thomas Register.
Answer. D

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NO.3 KillTest has been experiencing numerous stockouts on a production item.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause this problem?
A. Faulty sales forecasts.
B. Incorrect order points.
C. Increased supplier prices.
D. Problems with incoming shipments.
Answer. C

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NO.4 Which of the following is the FIRST step in standardization?
A. Collecting data.
B. Simplifying standards.
C. Establishing objectives.
D. Publicizing the program.
Answer. A

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NO.5 Which of the following represents the BEST strategy for minimizing price risk in a
falling market?
A. Hedging.
B. Forward buying.
C. Hand-to-mouth buying.
D. Buying to requirements.
Answer. C

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NO.6 When is the timing of purchases MOST important?
A. When a market has price and supply stability.
B. When a market has price and supply instability.
C. When a market has unstable supply with predictable prices.
D. When a market has reasonably stable supply with substantial fluctuation in prices.
Answer. C

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NO.7 Which of the following should generally make a "make-or-buy" decision?
A. Engineering Management.
B. Purchasing Management.
C. Production Management.
D. General Management.
Answer. D

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NO.8 When would a purchasing manager generally use a third-party lease as a financing
instrument?
A. When purchasing equipment from the manufacturer with someone else's money.
B. When acquiring equipment from one party and maintenance from another.
C. When arranging an assignment agreement with a bank.
D. When transferring the asset to the internal customer.
Answer. A

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NO.9 Which of the following should a purchaser utilize when there is a need to minimize
financial risk in a sensitive market?
A. Cash flow management.
B. Long-term relationships.
C. Market demand analysis.
D. Hedging using futures contracts.
Answer. D

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NO.10 Which of the following can be used to spot abnormalities in a process, as well as
compare actual measurements to customer or engineering specifications, and show
if a distribution is centered at an expected place?
A. Pareto charts.
B. Area graphs.
C. Histograms.
D. Pie graphs.
Answer. C

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NO.11 Which of the following criteria would a project or process targeted for improvement
generally NOT meet?
A. It is in the process of change.
B. It is relevant to a key product or service issue.
C. It is within the control or influence of the team.
D. It is likely to contribute to organizational goals.
Answer. A

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NO.12 Which of the following is the MOST commonly sought-after piece of inventory
information?
A. The date the inventory is taken.
B. The current price of the items.
C. Inventory I.D. numbers.
D. Quantities.
Answer. D

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NO.13 Which of the following is NOT an appropriate consideration when seeking to
mitigate seasonal capacity issues?
A. Safety stock levels.
B. Transportation costs.
C. Forecasting accuracy.
D. Seasonal sales forecasts.
Answer. B

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NO.14 Which of the following favors making the part in a "make-or-buy" decision?
A. When design secrecy is required.
B. When volume requirements are small.
C. When production facilities are limited.
D. When there is a desire to maintain a multiple-source policy.
Answer. A

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NO.15 Which of the following are the two basic categories of costs associated with
inventories from a management point of view?
A. Supplies and services costs.
B. Storage and incremental costs.
C. Carrying costs and acquisition costs.
D. Obsolescence and deterioration costs.
Answer. C

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NO.16 Which of the following represents the MAIN reason why a fully documented
permanent summary record of a "make-or-buy" analysis should be maintained?
A. To respond to charges of favoritism by unsuccessful bidders.
B. To serve as a useful source of information in future situations.
C. To support cost-of-goods-sold (CGS) figures for tax purposes.
D. To justify the participation of all departments that were involved in the analysis.
Answer. C

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NO.17 Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. An operational lease has a non-cancelable term varying from hours to years.
B. An operational lease is a total financial commitment by the lessor.
C. In operational leases, payments are fixed payments per period.
D. Operational leases stress service.
Answer. B

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NO.18 Which of the following BEST describes the difference between evaluation of a
product and value analysis?
A. Value analysis is more concerned with "make-or-buy" issues.
B. Evaluation of a product is more concerned with cost issues.
C. Value analysis focuses more on economy and efficiency.
D. Value analysis is more concerned with product liability.
Answer. C

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NO.19 What is generally the PRIMARY motivation for outsourcing in the health care
sector?
A. To reduce technological risk.
B. To shift patient liability.
C. To reduce labor costs.
D. To implement JIT.
Answer. C

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NO.20 Which of the following represents the MOST common reason for a public or
nonprofit corporation to use lease/purchase agreements to obtain equipment?
A. To gain tax advantages.
B. To avoid capital expenditures.
C. To reduce maintenance needs.
D. To gain depreciation advantages.
Answer. B

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NO.1 Which of the following activities is NOT part of Situation Appraisal?
A.Identify concerns.
B.Set priority.
C.Identify possible causes.
D.Plan involvement.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When looking at the Performance System, which is the correct sequence?
A.Situation, Performer, Response, Feedback, Consequences.
B.Consequences, Feedback, Situation, Performer, Response.
C.Situation, Performer, Response, Consequences, Feedback.
D.Performer, Feedback, Situation, Consequences, Response.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Once you have found the cause of a problem, you should use Think Beyond the Fix to prevent
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A.Extend the cause, extend the fix.
B.Identify likely causes, take preventive action.
C.Identify distinctions, identify changes.
D.Identify likely effects, plan contingent action.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why are Turnaround Questions used when developing a problem specification?
A.To drill down to the most specific answer.
B.To get lots of information.
C.When you stop making progress
D.To involve more people.
Answer: A

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NO.5 When confirming the most probable cause, you should choose methods that are
A.Easiest, quickest, cheapest, safest, surest.
B.Things that you can do right now.
C.Acceptable to everyone who will be involved.
D.Able to be done experimentally i.e.not in live.
Answer: A

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NO.6 In Decision Analysis, actions to reduce risk:
a)Take a great amount of planning.
b)Can be done quickly and simply.
c)Should only be done when the risks are high.
d)Should bring risk to an acceptable level.
A.a and b.
B.b and d.
C.c only.
D.d only.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following activities would initially help identify how green an organisation currently is?
A. Developing a Stakeholder Map.
B. Drafting an action register.
C. Holding a fact-finding workshop.
D. Creating a carbon accounting system.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When generating alternatives why is an expanded number of choices desirable?
A.To make sure any 'pet' alternatives are considered.
B.To increase the chances of picking a winner.
C.To ensure a complete, balanced set of alternatives.
D.To ensure the recommendation gets approved.
Answer: C

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NO.9 The purpose of the problem specification is:
a.To document a factual description of the problem.
b.To show the boundaries of the problem.
c.To help eliminate possible causes.
d.To help identify distinctions.
A.a and c.
B.a, b and c.
C.b and d.
D.All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.10 In the Balance of Consequences, which of the consequence types should be used first to drive
behavioural change?
a)Immediate Positive.
b)Immediate Negative.
c)Delayed Positive.
d)Delayed Negative.
A.a and b.
B.c and d.
C.a only.
D.b only.
Answer: C

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Exam Name: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Business Analysis )
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Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Which of the following terms may be used to describe the attitude of a stakeholder who is NOT in favour
of the project but is probably not actively opposed to it?
A. Opponent.
B. Neutral.
C. Critic.
D. Blocker.
Answer: C

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NO.2 On a class diagram, what do the multiplicities represent?
A. The number of attributes held within each class.
B. The minimum and maximum number of operations in each class.
C. The minimum and maximum number of objects in each class.
D. The business rules for an association between two classes.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the first stage of the waterfall systems development lifecycle?
A. Plan.
B. Analysis.
C. Feasibility Study.
D. Strategic Vision.
Answer: C

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NO.4 It has been suggested that five clerical posts can be abolished when a new computer system is
implemented. Under which category of costs or benefits will this be recorded?
A. Tangible costs.
B. Tangible benefits.
C. Intangible costs.
D. Intangible benefits.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What does the O' stand for in the CATVVOE analysis?
A. The objectives of the business system under review.
B. The opportunities for change in the business system under review.
C. The organisation of the business system under review.
D. The owner of the business system under review.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Given the cashflows below, which of the following is correct?
A. The project pays back in year 4 of the project.
B. The project does not pay back within the four year period.
C. The project pays back in year 2 of the project.
D. The project pays back in year 3 of the project.
Answer: B

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NO.7 The required competencies of a business analyst are classified into three categories. Which of the
following is one of these three categories.?
A. Management Qualities.
B. Business Knowledge.
C. IT Skills
D. Project Skills.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Business rules define how actions are to be performed. Under which of the following headings are
business rules considered?
A. Explicit or implicit management statements,
B. Statutory and internal policies.
C. Constraints and operational guidance.
D. Negotiable and non-negotiable limitations.
Answer: C

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NO.9 In which of the following business analysis areas does the traditional systems analyst role primarily
operate?
A. Quantifying costs and benefits.
B. Defining the needs of the business.
C. Implementing business changes.
D. Specifying IT system requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following investigation techniques involves following a user for one or two days in order to
find out what a particular job entails?
A. Scenario analysis.
B. Protocol analysis.
C. Shadowing.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following statement is TRUE about the process view of an organisation?
A. It focuses on the customer of the organisation.
B. It focuses solely on the internal view of the organisation.
C. It focuses on the functions of an organisation.
D. It focuses on the organisational structure.
Answer: A

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NO.12 A batch program runs every night to raise invoices. The next day these invoices are posted out to
customers by a clerk. Customers pay the invoices with cheques. The cheques are then banked by a clerk.
In this scenario, which of the following represents a business event?
A. System prints invoices.
B. Clerk sends invoices to customers.
C. Customer's cheque is received.
D. Clerk banks the cheque.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Different reactions may be observed when a change to working methods is proposed. These reactions
include:
a. Enthusiasm for the change.
b. Fear of the change.
c. Reduced performance on the job.
d. Reluctant acceptance of the change.
Which of the following represents the typical sequence of these four reactions?
A. b, d, c and a.
B. a, b, c and d.
C. b, c, d and a.
D. a, b, d and c.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which stage in the waterfall model is considered as several separate stages in the V model?
A. Development.
B. Analysis.
C. Testing.
D. Design.
Answer: C

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NO.15 As part of an investigation a Business Analyst has devised a form for users of an existing system to use
to keep track of the tasks they undertake during their working day. Which of the following describes this
investigation technique?
A. Special purpose records,
B. Scenario analysis.
C. Questionnaires.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: A

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NO.16 In a particular organisation it is common practice to call all managers by their first name. It is part of the
culture of the organisation. Newcomers are quickly corrected if they do not follow this informal approach.
What would knowing about this convention be classified as in Requirements Engineering?
A. Explicit individual knowledge.
B. Tacit individual knowledge.
C. Explicit corporate knowledge.
D. Tacit corporate knowledge.
Answer: D

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NO.17 When should benefits realisation be carried out?
A. Immediately at the end of the project.
B. At the beginning of the project.
C. At the end of the finalised feasibility study.
D. Months or years after the end of the project.
Answer: D

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NO.18 A stakeholder has been classified as 'some' on both the power/influence and interest axes of a
power/interest grid. Which of the following would be an appropriate way of managing this stakeholder?
A. Keep on side.
B. Keep watching.
C. Keep informed.
D. Keep satisfied.
Answer: A

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NO.19 During which stage of the Business Analysis Process Model would a gap analysis be carried out?
A. Define requirements.
B. Analyse needs.
C. Evaluate the options.
D. Investigate situation.
Answer: B

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NO.20 A well formed requirement is said to comply with which of the following acronyms?
A. MOSCOW.
B. SMART.
C. OSCAR.
D. MOST.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CISSP-ISSEP
Exam Name: ISC (CISSP-ISSEP - Information Systems Security Engineering Professional)
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Total Q&A: 214 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Which of the following is used to indicate that the software has met a defined quality level and is ready
for mass distribution either by electronic means or by physical media
A. ATM
B. RTM
C. CRO
D. DAA
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following tasks obtains the customer agreement in planning the technical effort
A. Task 9
B. Task 11
C. Task 8
D. Task 10
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following federal laws is designed to protect computer data from theft
A. Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA)
B. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA)
C. Government Information Security Reform Act (GISRA)
D. Computer Security Act
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following email lists is written for the technical audiences, and provides weekly
summaries of security issues, new vulnerabilities, potential impact, patches and workarounds, as well as
the actions recommended to mitigate risk
A. Cyber Security Tip
B. Cyber Security Alert
C. Cyber Security Bulletin
D. Technical Cyber Security Alert
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following elements are described by the functional requirements task Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Coverage
B. Accuracy
C. Quality
D. Quantity
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a
methodology for assessing the security of information systems. Which of the following FITSAF levels
shows that the procedures and controls are tested and reviewed?
A. Level 4
B. Level 5
C. Level 1
D. Level 2
E. Level 3
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A)
process
A. Authorizing Official
B. Information system owner
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following documents is defined as a source document, which is most useful for the ISSE
when classifying the needed security functionality
A. Information Protection Policy (IPP)
B. IMM
C. System Security Context
D. CONOPS
Answer: A

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NO.9 The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has
been accredited in Phase 3. What are the process activities of this phase Each correct answer represents
a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Security operations
B. Continue to review and refine the SSAA
C. Change management
D. Compliance validation
E. System operations
F. Maintenance of the SSAA
Answer: A,C,D,E,F

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NO.10 Which of the following documents were developed by NIST for conducting Certification & Accreditation
(C&A) Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. NIST Special Publication 800-59
B. NIST Special Publication 800-60
C. NIST Special Publication 800-37A
D. NIST Special Publication 800-37
E. NIST Special Publication 800-53
F. NIST Special Publication 800-53A
Answer: A,B,D,E,F

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NO.11 Which of the following elements of Registration task 4 defines the system's external interfaces as well
as the purpose of each external interface, and the relationship between the interface and the system
A. System firmware
B. System software
C. System interface
D. System hardware
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following is a type of security management for computers and networks in order to identify
security breaches.?
A. IPS
B. IDS
C. ASA
D. EAP
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following security controls is a set of layered security services that address
communications and data security problems in the emerging Internet and intranet application space
A. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
B. Common data security architecture (CDSA)
C. File encryptors
D. Application program interface (API)
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following Security Control Assessment Tasks gathers the documentation and supporting
materials essential for the assessment of the security controls in the information system
A. Security Control Assessment Task 4
B. Security Control Assessment Task 3
C. Security Control Assessment Task 1
D. Security Control Assessment Task 2
Answer: C

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NO.15 Part of your change management plan details what should happen in the change control system for
your project. Theresa, a junior project manager, asks what the configuration management activities are
for scope changes. You tell her that all of the following are valid configuration management activities
except for which one
A. Configuration Item Costing
B. Configuration Identification
C. Configuration Verification and Auditing
D. Configuration Status Accounting
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following professionals plays the role of a monitor and takes part in the organization's
configuration management process
A. Chief Information Officer
B. Authorizing Official
C. Common Control Provider
D. Senior Agency Information Security Officer
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following types of firewalls increases the security of data packets by remembering the state
of connection at the network and the session layers as they pass through the filter
A. Stateless packet filter firewall
B. PIX firewall
C. Stateful packet filter firewall
D. Virtual firewall
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following protocols is used to establish a secure terminal to a remote network device
A. WEP
B. SMTP
C. SSH
D. IPSec
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following guidelines is recommended for engineering, protecting, managing, processing,
and controlling national security and sensitive (although unclassified) information
A. Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS)
B. Special Publication (SP)
C. NISTIRs (Internal Reports)
D. DIACAP by the United States Department of Defense (DoD)
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following processes culminates in an agreement between key players that a system in its
current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls
A. Certification and accreditation (C&A)
B. Risk Management
C. Information systems security engineering (ISSE)
D. Information Assurance (IA)
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which parameter in WLM Application Environment controls the # of concurrent stored
procedures that can run in that particular environment?
A.NUMSRB
B.NUMTHR
C.NUMCTK
D.NUMTCB
Correct:D

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NO.2 There are dynamic SQL statements running in a subsystem that need to have their host
variables reoptimized at run-time, however the distribution of the values does not change very
much between execution. What is the most optimal bind parameter for these statements?
A.REOPT(NONE)
B.REOPT(ONCE)
C.REOPT(VARS)
D.REOPT(ALWAYS)
Correct:B

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NO.3 A DBA wishes to audit all access to the non-audited table OWNER.EMPLOYEE. Assuming no
audit traces are started, which of the following steps are needed to audit access to this table?
A.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (5)
B.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5)
C.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE AUDIT ALL
D.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE DATA CAPTURE
CHANGES
Correct:C

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NO.4 Which of the following DSNZPARMs is necessary to influence access path selection for certain
queries?
A.STDSQL
B.OPTHINTS
C.PARTKEYU
D.DESCSTAT
Correct:B

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NO.5 A DBA was examining the Log Statistics, Log Activity section in the OMEGAMON Performance
Expert Tool and noticed a large value in the field UNAVAILABLE OUTPUT LOG BUFF. This is an
important and critical performance metric. What does this performance metric mean?
A.The OUTPUT BUFFER field of installation panel DSNTIPL was specified too large so memory was not
utilized and wasted.
B.The active logs were not stripped by DFSMS and the active log data sets have to be processed
sequentially so many times.
C.The active log data sets were not placed on different volumes to reduce contention so a large amount of
I/O activity showed up in the OUTPUT BUFFER field.
D.The OUTPUT BUFFER field of installation panel DSNTIPL was specified too small so application has to
wait while DB2 was busy writing the Active log data sets.
Correct:D

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NO.6 A company uses TRUSTED CONTEXT "ERP1" and ROLE "ERP_ROLE" as a security mechanism
to limit security exposure for an application. All the DB2 objects (databases, table spaces, tables,
indexes, views, plans and packages) have been created by that ROLE. The ROLE "ERP_ROLE"
has been assigned to User ID "DBA01" in order to perform DBA related tasks. When the user
"DBA01" leaves the company, the authorization ID is removed. Which of the following statements
are correct? (Select two answers)
A.None of these DB2 objects need to be recreated to re-grant the privileges.
B.The related plans and packages have to be recreated and the privileges re-granted.
C.When removing user "DBA01" privileges, none of these DB2 objects need to be dropped.
D.Only the related databases, table spaces, tables, indexes and views need to be recreated and the
privileges re-granted.
E.To remove the privileges of user "DBA01" on these related plans and packages, they have to be
dropped and as a result all associated privileges are revoked.
Correct:A C

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NO.7 Which of the following is the correct configuration in a two way DB2 datasharing group?
A.MVSA (DB2A, active log A, workfile A) MVSB (DB2B, active log B, workfile B) Shared BSDS and
catalog and directory Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
B.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active Log B, workfile B)
Shared catalog and directory Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
C.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A, catalog & directory A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active
log A, workfile A, catalog & directory B) Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
D.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A, catalog & directory A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active
log B, workfile B, catalog & directory B) Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
Correct:B

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NO.8 An audit trace shows that TSO user TSOID1, with DBADM authority, is continually attempting to
update a table in DB2 subsystem DSN1 that is not supposed to be updated. Which of the following
will prevent access to the DB2 subsystem?
A.REVOKE DBADM FROM TSOID1
B.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.TSO to NONE
C.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to READ
D.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to NONE
Correct:D

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NO.9 A DB2 V9 system that is in New Function Mode:
A.cannot fall back.
B.can fall back to Compatibility Mode.
C.can fall back to New Function Mode*.
D.can fall back to Compatibility Mode*.
Correct:D

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NO.10 Which of the following buffer pool thresholds CANNOT be changed by the DBA?
A.Deferred write threshold (DWQT)
B.Immediate write threshold (IWTH)
C.Vertical deferred write threshold (VDWQT)
D.Virtual buffer pool assisting parallel sequential threshold (VPXPSEQT)
Correct:B

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NO.11 An application has been running in production for a long time. The size of the objects involved
has not changed, but the application is running much slower than in the beginning. When should
the DBA consider manually REBINDing the application?
A.After REORGing the objects with inline statistics.
B.When dynamic SQL is used, but only after REORG and RUNSTATS has been performed.
C.Actually it is NOT recommended to perform manual rebinds but rather have DB2 perform automatic
rebinds.
D.If the size of the objects has not changed after gathering RUNSTATS data, the access path is very
unlikely to change, and therefore no REBIND is needed.
Correct:A

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NO.12 At which of the following times is the access control authorization routine (DSNX@XAC)
invoked?
A.At DB2 startup.
B.When executing a DB2 GRANT statement.
C.When DB2 has cached authorization information.
D.During any authorization check if NO was specified in the USE PROTECTION field of the DSNTIPP
panel.
Correct:A

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NO.13 If an object is created statically by a role within a trusted context and the ROLE AS OBJECT
OWNER clause is specified, who becomes the object owner when executing the package?
A.The role
B.The schema name
C.The owner keyword
D.The current SQLID (if set)
Correct:A

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NO.14 What is the purpose of the following catalog health query? SELECT BNAME, BCREATOR,
BTYPE, DNAME FROM SYSIBM.SYSPLANDEP PD WHERE BTYPE IN ('T', 'V', 'A') AND NOT EXISTS
(SELECT * FROM SYSIBM.SYSTABLES WHERE CREATOR = PD.BCREATOR AND NAME =
PD.BNAME AND TYPE = PD.BTYPE);
A.For every row in SYSTABLES that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should be
a corresponding row in SYSPLANDEP.
B.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should
be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
C.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, view, or a table that
has been altered, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
D.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, a table with a
VARCHAR column, or alias, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
Correct:B

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NO.15 Given the following RUNSTATS utility statement: RUNSTATS TABLESPACE
DB2CERTDB.MYTBLSPC1 TABLE (MYTABLE1) COLUMN(ALL) INDEX REPORT YES UPDATE ALL
HISTORY ALL which of the following statements is true?
A.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on all columns of all indexes on table MYTABLE1.
B.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on the first column of each index on table MYTABLE1.
C.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on all columns of each index associated with table space
MYTBLSPC1.
D.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on the first column of each index associated with table space
MYTBLSPC1.
Correct:D

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NO.16 Which statement best describes how multi-row fetch improves performance?
A.It reduces the amount of programming required.
B.It reduces the number of SQL statements issued.
C.It reduces the amount of data sent over a network.
D.It reduces the amount of I/O required to read a table.
Correct:B

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NO.17 A DBA needs to use the DSN command processor to delete DB2 packages that are no longer
needed. Which of the following choices is correct for the DBA to use?
A.SPUFI or QMF with the DROP statement
B.FREE Package (..)
C.DROP Package (..)
D.DROP PLAN () PKLIST (..)
Correct:B

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NO.18 A DBA has been required by a new company policy to implement a new DB2 security method.
The company would like to separate the authorization IDs that can execute plans and packages
from the authorization IDs that can create new plans and packages. Which of the following explicit
system privileges allows the user to create new plans and packages without being able to also
execute them?
A.BINDADD
B.CREATEIN
C.BINDAGENT
D.CREATEDBA
Correct:C

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NO.19 Which of the following RACF profiles would be used to allow IMS to access DB2 DSN1?
A.DSN1.IMS
B.DSNR.IMS
C.DSN1.MASS
D.DSN1.SASS
Correct:C

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NO.20 An end-user indicates that the DRDA client application accessing DB2 for z/OS is very slow.
However, other local applications accessing the same tables are running fine. What would
indicate that this could be a DB2 problem?
A.Calculate the non-nested CLASS 1 CPU time minus non-nested CLASS 2 CPU time. If the value is high,
it suggests a problem in the DDF address space.
B.Investigate the CLASS 3 suspension time. As class 3 time includes the time that DB2 spends
sending/receiving network messages, a high value is a possible indication that the network is
experiencing a slow-down.
C.Calculate the non-nested CLASS 1 Elapsed time (ET) minus non-nested CLASS 2 ET. If the value is
high, this can only be caused by spending most time in the application, and therefore the application
should be investigated.
D.Check to see if the DB2 remote connection can become inactive at commit (Type 2 inactive). If not, this
leads to a high non-nested CLASS 1 ET and is likely the cause of the performance problem. Inactive
connections will use less CPU than threads that stay active all the time.
Correct:A

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