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Exam Code: COG-500
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 8 Analytic Applications Developer)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 A warehouse fact object called "CERTIFY" is populated. Which database object would contain the SID
column references to the related dimensions?
A. CERTIFY_FX
B. CERTIFY
C. CERTIFY_DX
D. CERTIFY_MEASURES
Answer: D

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NO.2 In which situation would you use a factless fact.?
A. When numeric measurement values are not always available from the source system.
B. When the target warehouse is fully refreshed on a regular basis with numeric measurement values.
C. When business process events have no natural numeric measurement values.
D. When multi-grain measurement values will be stored on the fact table.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What do you call a single dimension that supports distinct logical uses in a warehouse model?
A. an outrigger dimension
B. a role-playing dimension
C. a self-join dimension
D. a bridge dimension
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a purpose of the Adaptive Application Framework (AAF) Runtime version?
A. to execute Adaptive Analytics Reports
B. to execute the Adaptive Warehouse User Interface (UI)
C. to deploy Adaptive Warehouse generated Framework Manager models
D. to execute Adaptive Warehouse (AW) load management scripts
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three connectivity types are required by Adaptive Warehouse to operate properly? (Choose
three.)
A. a native (RDBMS) connection to the IBM Cognos 8 Content Store
B. a connection to your source data
C. a gateway URI connection to the IBM Cognos BI Server
D. a gateway URI connection to LDAP security services
E. a native (RDBMS) connection to your target warehouse database
Answer: B, C, E

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Exam Code: 000-M44
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SUT Advanced Level Technical Sales Mastery v1.0)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 Which methods are defined to transfer the Billing Data to the Billing Server?
A. Push and Pull Method.
B. Send and Fetch Method.
C. Bring and Take Method.
D. Deliver and Retrieve Method.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What parameter of a SUT soft-phone client can you configure?
A. Allowed codecs.
B. Sequence of codecs in a list.
C. Rights to add/modify preferred devices.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Where can redundancy be applied?
A. Entire systems (to all components of system).
B. To the HD.
C. To the NIC.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are typical functions of a Session Boarder Controller?
A. Security ?to protect the network against attacks.
B. Connectivity ?NAT in the application layer.
C. Quality of Server ?Prioritization of flows.
D. A, B and C
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which tool can add SUT subscribers?
A. CMP ?Common Management Portal
B. SBC ?Session Border Controller
C. TDI ?Tivoli Directory Integrator
D. A and C
Answer: C

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NO.6 How are the SUT user privileges for preferred devices managed?
A. Via a hidden config file on the client PC.
B. Via Policy settings on Sametime server.
C. Via registry entries on client PC.
D. Via different software versions of client plug-in.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A Session Boarder Controller can protect against _______________
A. denial of service attacks.
B. excessive phone usage.
C. data loss.
D. loud dial tone volume
Answer: A

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NO.8 What should be considered if a large configuration for TAS is planned?
A. There must be a 1:1 relation TAS to allocated media server.
B. At least one additional server for fail over purposes is required.
C. A maximum of 15000 users is allowed.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.9 How many stand-by TAS do you need.?
A. One.
B. At least one per cluster using the same SAN-resources.
C. As many as the active TAS's.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which sequence for Initial Provisioning is correct?
A. Configuring settings and attribute mapping section of settings.xml - Running the initial
provisioning process - Importing the csv-output file via CMP.
B. Installing TDI - Configuring settings and attribute mapping section of settings.xml - Running the initial
provisioning process - Importing the csv-output file via CMP.
C. Installing TDI - Configuring setting section of settings.xml - Running the initial provisioning process -
Importing the csv-output file via CMP.
D. Installing TDI - Configuring settings and attribute mapping section of settings.xml - Importing the
csv-output file via CMP.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-Z03
Exam Name: IBM (zEnterprise Solution Sales Update Mastery)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 36 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 A customer has many highly variable Linux workloads that would virtualize very well with z/VM. The
customer has no z/VM skills.The customer wants to implement a capacity management and chargeback
system.Which of these alternatives would be the most appropriate zEnterprise solution?
A.Linux on z/VM and IFLs with Unified Resource Manager to provide a simplified management interface
B.zBX since recent announcements shift focus away from Linux on z/VM as a viable solution
C.Linux on Power blades in a zBX with Unified Resource Manager for simplified management
D.Linux on z/VM and IFLs with services to setup and provide ongoing support for z/VM
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer has a large number of distributed servers running Linux.Which of the following is a potential
benefit of consolidating these systems onto a System z running Linux?
A.If the distributed servers are highly utilized, they make good candidates to consolidate onto a System z
running Linux.
B.Linux on System z is controlled by IBM, it is far superior to Linux on other platforms.
C.Server consolidation may result in a reduced footprint, environmental savings, and increased speed of
virtual Linux server creation.
D.Consolidating onto a System z can increase security since the use of HiperSockets is required.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What software pricing option should be considered for a z/OS environment on a stand alone z114?
A.VWLC and ELA
B.IPLA or EWLC
C.AEWLC
D.PSLC
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer currently has blades of several types, including Intel-based blades, and is using
virtualization.Without having more details of the customer
current environment what could be
presented as an advantage of the Unified Resource Manager and zBX?
A.Ability to define and run more virtual machines per virtualized blade
B.Managing the workloads in the blades according to goal-oriented policies
C.Employing a single hypervisor across all the platforms
D.Ability to easily relocate virtual machines across platforms
Answer: B

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D.Minimizes required resources across the zEnterprise (CPC and zBX)
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M195
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Security Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 47 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 What are the key security features of IBM Security Virtual Server Protection for VMware?
A. Rootkit Detection, Firewall, Intrusion Prevention, Virtual Network Admission Control, File Integrity
Monitoring.
B. Rootkit Detection, Firewall, Intrusion Prevention, Virtual Network Admission Control, Auditing.
C. Rootkit Detection & Removal, Firewall, Intrusion Prevention, Virtual Network Admission Control,
Auditing.
D. Rootkit Detection, Firewall, Intrusion Detection Only, Virtual Network Admission Control, Auditing.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is not one of the major contributing elements of IBM's Smarter Planet initiative?
A. Interconnected
B. Integrated
C. Intelligent
D. Instrumented
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following Security Focus areas as shown in the IBM Security Framework are addressed
with IBM Security Services offerings?
A. Data and Information Security.
B. Application Security.
C. Network, Server and Endpoint Security
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Based upon discussions with several different vendors, a client has requested an Intrusion Prevention
System (IPS) competitive evaluation.
What action should the seller take?
A. Request that IBM Global Finance deliver evaluation equipment to the client.
B. Complete the evaluation agreement form, and deliver the equipment to the client for testing.
C. Provide the client with a tour of a Global Security Operations Center to showcase the capabilities of
IBM security products.
D. Work with a Systems Engineer to schedule delivery and implementation of the evaluation product in
the client ¯ s env ir on m en t.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The IBM Security Framework defines the need for repeatable, testable and automated controls for all
but:
A. Data security
B. Applications security
C. Asset management
D. Infrastructure protection
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M229
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SPSS Predictive Analytics Sales Mastery v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 45 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 Which two SPSS Data Collection components make up SPSS Data Entry.?
A. Interviewer and Reports
B. Author and Reports
C. Author and Interviewer
D. Author and Scan
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the main purpose of SPSS Data Collection?
A. To gather feedback from constituents for use in advanced and predictive analytics.
B. To retrieve existing data stored from disparate sources.
C. To prepare messy data for more accurate modeling.
D. To integrate analytic results into business processes.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which SPSS product(s) are required in order to use SPSS Decision Management?
A. SPSS Collaboration and Deployment Services and SPSS Modeler
B. SPSS Statistics and SPSS Modeler
C. SPSS Collaboration and Deployment Services and SPSS Statistics
D. SPSS Modeler and SPSS Data Collection
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M240
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Sametime Unified Telephony Sales Mastery Test v1 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 33 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 The following statement about Sametime Entry is true:
A. Includes online meetings
B. Supports Sametime Unified Telephony
C. Includes an open programming model
D. Includes rich presence
Answer: A

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NO.2 The value of unified communications includes all the following, except: .?
A. Reduces human latency in business processes
B. Helps individuals, groups and companies interact
C. Reduces network traffic
D. Cuts travel cost
Answer: C

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NO.3 POTS refers to all but the following:
A. Plain Old Telephone Service
B. The voice-grade telephone service that remains the basic form of connectionto the Telephone network
C. A Gateway device
D. The PSTN
Answer: C

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Exam Code: SPS-202
Exam Name: IBM (IBMSPSSMBPDM: IBM SPSS Modeler Business Partner Data Mining Associate )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 True or false: the CRISP-DM Process Methodology is a linear process.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which node is used to read data from a comma delimited text file?
A. Var. File
B. Data Collection
C. Fixed File
D. Statistics File
Answer: A

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NO.3 How many phases are in the CRISP-DM Process Methodology?
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 00M-604
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Government Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 What tools are smart governments empowering staff and field workers with while safely securing
physical environments?
A. Video surveillance and mobile devices
B. Transportation and communications
C. Manpower surveillance and mobile devices
D. Internet and mobile surveillance devices
Answer: C

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NO.2 What can the IBM Government Industry Framework foundation platform also be used for?
A. Other objectives
B. Other training programs
C. Other industries
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 What does a pre-integrated and pre-tested stack of software products address in each project or
solution in the Government Framework.?
A. A set of products
B. The pain points
C. A set of standards
D. A set of goals
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-N24
Exam Name: IBM (IBM QRadar Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 42 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 How do you add a new (supported) DSM to the system?
A. Download the rpm to the console and use the rpm command to add it.
B. You cannot add new DSMs to the system.
C. Configure autoupdate on the admin tab and manually add the DSM using the rpm command on the
console.
D. Both A and C are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Write a regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: Username=miths?Write a
regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: Username=?miths
A. \?smith)\?\?smith)\
B. Ame=?.*?)\?Ame=?.*?)\
C. =\?.*?)
D. ame\=\?.*?)\?ame\=\?.*?)\
Answer: D

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NO.3 What characteristic distinguishes QRadar from other SIM/SIEM solutions?
A. QRadar is the only solution that works in a heterogeneous environment.
B. QRadar has the best correlation engine.
C. QRadar supports many more devices.
D. QRadar is the only SIM/SIEM solution that natively processes flows.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which method can be used to deliver log data to QRadar?
A. Syslog
B. Opsec/LEA
C. TFTP
D. Both A and B are correct
Answer: D

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NO.5 Write a regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: serID: smiths
A. rID\:\s(.*?)\s
B. Use\:\s(.*?)\s
C. rID\:(\d+)\s
D. serid\:(.*?)\?serid\:(.*?)\
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-N33
Exam Name: IBM (IBM i2 IntelligenceTechnical Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 27 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 Which Social Network Analysis centrality measure is the most suitable to identify gatekeeper
entities in a computer network?
A.Closeness
B.Betweenness
C.Degree
D.Eigenvector
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is not an Attribute Class Type?
A.Text
B.Flag
C.Real Number
D.Date & Time
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which item below is not one of the analysis attributes?
A.Entity Earliest Link
B.Entity Average Link
C.Entity Latest Link
D.Entity Connections
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-667
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Mobile Foundation Enterprise Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 43 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 What added benefit is there to the IBM Worklight Mobile Platform compared to in-house
mobile
development?
A. IBM Worklight provides a middleware services layer.
B. IBM Worklight provides Optimization capabilities.
C. IBM Worklight provides multiple features to address enterprise security requirements.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) provides:
A. Unified endpoint device management
B. Single point of control and visibility
C. Reduced hardware and administrative costs
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which scenario is NOT a strong use cases for IBM Worklight?
A. A bank looking to deploy one application for millions of customers
B. A global financial organization who wants to deploy 10 applications for different lines of
business
C. A technical conglomerate that wants to build 50 applications but has tight control over their
branding and security processes
D. A company that wants to support legacy rugged Windows CE/ 6.5 devices
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which customer scenario represents the most ideal prospect for IBM Worklight Platform?
A. The customer that wants a pure native application and is looking to their digital design agency,
that built their ecommerce website, to now build their mobile application
B. The customer that is looking for a solution to help build mobile hybrid applications in house by
their web development team
C. The customer that believes they do not need a presence on commercial App Stores and just
wants a server side mobile web experience for their customers
D. The customer that is looking for a simple single app for a single device for its internal
employees
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following pro/con statement(s) best represents the characteristics of developing
a
fully native mobile application?
A. Pro - limited user experience / Con - short development cycles
B. Pro - engaging user experience / Con - inefficient and costly development for multiple devices
C. Pro - simple development effort / Con - applications are more secure
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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6. In addition to traditional mobile device management which capabilities are included in IEM for
Mobile Devices?
A. An integrated security and compliance picture for all devices.
B. Integration with related IT systems such as asset management, service desk, and security
intelligence.
C. A unique, highly scalable architecture that allows instant delivery of new capabilities.
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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7. What is the main challenge associated with the “bring your own device” (BYOD) trend?
A. Companies want their employees to use issued devices so budget is not wasted.
B. IT is expected to support personal devices and their access to sensitive back-end systems.
C. HR wants to avoid employees bringing status symbols to work.
D. Companies don't want employees using social applications at work.
Answer: B

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8. What is a hybrid mobile application?
A. An eco-friendly application that runs on electrical power and is overpriced for its value
B. An application that is developed by two separate teams integrating server-side and client-side
assets respectively
C. An application that is developed using both native and web-based coding languages
D. A mobile web application developed using JavaScript
Answer: C

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9. What is Cast Iron used for?
A. Simple and rapid Cloud application integration projects
B. Connecting Cloud and On Premise applications
C. Data migration and Data Synchronization
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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B. Custom code is point-to-point and thus not scalable over time.
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D. All of the above
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2140-135
Exam Name: IBM (Rational Host Access Transformation Services (HATS) v7.1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-17

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NO.1 On which environment(s) are HATS Web applications, developed using the HATS
Toolkit, supported to
be deployed and run?
A. Eclipse RCP and Lotus(R) Expeditor Client
B. IBM WebSphere application server production runtime
C. IBM and non-IBM Portal Server production runtime
D. any J2EE-compatible application server available on the market
Answer: B

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NO.2 What would most improve end user response time for a HATS application?
A. decreasing the timer of the screen settling algorithm
B. using fast 3270e with a host supporting contention resolution
C. increasing the timer of the screen settling algorithm
D. using fast 3270e with a 5250 host
Answer: B

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NO.3 How might a developer use a shared global variable?
A. share a variable value between the sessions of two different users
B. share a variable value that can be used in a future session
C. share a variable value between two different applications being accessed by a single user
D. share a variable with a non-HATS Web application
Answer: C

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NO.4 In the Lotus Expeditor Client environment, HATS rich client applications can be
managed, deployed,
and controlled in a number of ways. What is NOT a supported environment?
A. Lotus Expeditor Server, which contains the Device Manager Server component
B. WebSphere Portal, which allows for centrally-administered, role-based access to
applications
C. Eclipse update site, which provides provisioning and updating using a standard Web
server
D. WebSphere Application Server, which allows for centrally-administered, role-based access
to
applications
Answer: D

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NO.5 To help with debugging HATS applications on a test or production system, a display
terminal window
can be displayed. Which statement is FALSE about the display terminal window?
A. Turning on the display terminal option can seriously affect performance or overload the
server.
B. The display terminal functions can be turned on using the extended HATS application
button
Standard.?
C. It is possible to interact with the host application using the host screen in the terminal
window.
D. The display terminal functions can be turned on for any new host connections by selecting
the Enable
Display Terminal box on the Trace Settings panel.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: A2180-377
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0, Core Admin)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-17

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NO.1 Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other
facilities does
WebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells?
A.wsadmin
B.The administrative agent
C.The Profile Management Tool (PMT)
D.Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Module
ANSWER: C

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NO.2 Which of the following options is NOT a valid method of running the Profile
Management Tool?
A.Run the command directly from a system console.
B.Select Profile Management Tool from the First Steps application.
C.Select System Administration -> Run Profile Management Tool in the administrative
console.
D.Check the Create a new WebSphere Application Server profile using the Profile
Management Tool
option at the end of the installation process.
ANSWER: C

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NO.3 A system administrator has successfully installed WebSphere Application Server V7.0
and has run
the Installation Verification Tool (IVT) with a success message. Which additional step can be
taken to
further verify the installation?
A.Check to see if the InstallShield application will run again.
B Check to see if the installation directory specified exists in the file system.
CUse a browser to access the launch page of the IBM HTTP Server.
D.Use a browser to access the administrative console and log in successfully.
ANSWER: D

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NO.4 What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a
request from a
Web browser to a servlet?
A.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB Container
B.Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web Container
C.Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web Container
D.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web Container
ANSWER: D

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NO.5 Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node
groups to implement
a distributed environment? To:
A.segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell.
B.define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically.
C.enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration
purposes.
D.allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically for
workload
management.
ANSWER: C

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NO.6 What is the Data Replication Service (DRS) used for? Please choose three from the
following.
A.Node agents
B.Web servers
C.Caching Proxy
D.Dynamic cache replication
E.HTTP session persistence and failover
F.Stateful session EJB persistence and failover
ANSWER: DEF

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NO.7 An administrator has created a deployment manager profile. However, the
administrator chose not to
create the Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) repository and populate it with the
WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 product files.
If, in the future, the administrator wants to use the Centralized Installation Manager to install
WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 on a remote host, which of the following tasks
will be
necessary?
A.Create the CIM repository using the Installation Factory.
B.Create a new deployment manager profile including the CIM repository.
C.Use the Centralized Installation Manager to create an installation target.
D.Use the Centralized Installation Manager to create an installation package.
ANSWER: A

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NO.8 How is the response file specified in a silent installation scenario?
A.Specified in the installation.properties file
B.Specified as a parameter in the launchpad user interface
C.Included as a command-line option on the install command
D.Included as a command-line option on the launchpad application
ANSWER: C

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NO.9 A system administrator is installing WebSphere Application Server for the first time
and was surprised
that the Profile Management Tool (PMT) did not have the expected profile type options, as
stated in the
Information Center.
What is the best conclusion for this finding?
A.The Java runtime being used by the installation program is not at the required version.
B.The system administrator is installing a variant of WebSphere Application Server that is not
Network
Deployment.
C.The target operating system the system administrator is installing on is not compatible with
WebSphere
Application Server.
D.A previous step in the installation has failed. The system administrator should cancel and
check the
logs before starting over again.
ANSWER: B

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NO.10 Which one of the following profile related tasks can only be performed using the
manageprofiles
command-line facility?
A.Delete a profile
B.Secure a profile
C.Federate a profile
D.Update profile templates
ANSWER: A

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NO.11 What would have to be configured in order to implement memory-to-memory HTTP
Session
persistence?
A.Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-in
B.Synchronization service and embedded Web server
C.Distributed environment settings in the web containers
D.Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web server
ANSWER: C

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NO.12 How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on
different hosts in a
network?
By using:
A.a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative
agents.
B.a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their
node agents.
C.a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through
their
administrative agents.
D.an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through their
administrative service.
ANSWER: A

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NO.13 What is the most common role that naming plays in WebSphere Application Server?
A.Allows applications to obtain references to objects such as EJB homes.
B.Allows Java programs (clients and Java EE applications) to create, send, receive, and read
asynchronous requests, as messages.
C.Provides a runtime environment for enterprise beans within the application server.
D.Provides a secure facility to support customer's basic organizational entity management
needs.
ANSWER: A

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NO.14 Which of the following is an option given in the First Steps application that runs
automatically after
installation?
A.Start the server.
B.Execute wsadmin.
C.Configure resources.
D.Run the Snoop servlet.
ANSWER: A

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NO.15 Which one of the following can be used to instantiate resource adapter classes for
establishing and
maintaining resource connections?
A.a data source
B.connection factories
C.connection pool settings
D.a JMS activation specification
ANSWER: B

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NO.16 Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation
of WebSphere
Application Server?
A.The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time.
B.The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated
in the future.
C.The installation for WebSphere Application Server would initially not be able to include
administrative
security.
D.The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments
to be done
over several installation attempts.
ANSWER: B

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NO.17 Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a
flexible
management topology and the network deployment cell?
A.Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.
B.Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.
C.The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.
D.The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment
manager.
ANSWER: A

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NO.18 When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings,
which of the
following commands would be relevant?
A.backupConfig -location location
B.restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
C.manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
D.wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
ANSWER: C

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NO.19 Applications that need to create additional persistent bindings of objects associated
with a specific
node can bind those objects under which of the following types of namespace partition?
A.Server roots
B.Cell persistent
C.Node persistent
D.System namespace
ANSWER: C

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NO.20 What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a
farm of Web servers?
A.Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster
B.Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancer
C.Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge Components
D.Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge Components
ANSWER: D

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NO.21 What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them
together in a
topology that has multiple interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)?
A.Enable protocol transformation between buses.
B.Improve the availability of the persistent storage.
C.Spread messaging workload across multiple servers.
D.Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines.
ANSWER: C

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NO.22 A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application
within a flexible
management environment. The system administrator can make the modification using
wsadmin scripts by
connecting to which of the following components?
A.Node agent
B.Job manager
C.Work manager
D.Administrative agent
E.Deployment manager
ANSWER: BE

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NO.23 In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management
environment, which one of
the following steps must be completed?
A.Register directly with the job manager.
B.Register with the node agent on the job managers host.
C.Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host
D.First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.
ANSWER: A

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NO.24 When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight
transactions from the
transaction log, what is required from the file system?
A.RAID disks must be used to host the transaction log
B.Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate them
C.File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4)
D.Lease-based exclusive locks on files
ANSWER: D

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NO.25 An administrator would like to use the Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) to install
WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 on a remote Solaris host. The Solaris host has
been
updated with all the required operating system patches.
What is the next step the administrator must perform?
A.Configure an installation target for the Solaris host.
B.Download Solaris interim fixes to the CIM repository.
C.Use the Job manager to create a remote installation job.
D.Copy WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 software to the Solaris
host.
ANSWER: A

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NO.26 Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)?
A.Generic servers
B.Application servers
C.Managed HTTP servers
D.Unmanaged HTTP servers
ANSWER: D

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NO.27 A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web
application running
in a clustered environment.
What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the response time of the Web
application?
A.Configure dynamic caching
B.Enable memory-to-memory replication
C.Configure session replication to use a database.
D.Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group.
ANSWER: A

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NO.28 Global security is turned on for a federated cell using a file-based federated
repository. The
administrator created a new security domain called App1Domain using local operating
system registry
and mapping it to the application server. The administrator also created a new local operating
system
user ID App1Admin.
Which one of the following is true when the new security domain is enabled to secure
Application1?
A.The administrator can access Application1.
B.The administrator can disable Application1 security.
C.App1Admin can disable Application1 security.
D.App1Admin can access the administrative console.
ANSWER: B

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NO.29 A WebSphere Application Server installation finishes and the primary installation log
indicates an exit
code of INSTCONFSUCCESS. What is the best conclusion that can be resolved from this
result?
A.The Web server installed successfully.
B.The WebSphere Application Server installed successfully.
C.The InstallShield Wizard executed successfully to launch WebSphere Application Server
installation.
D.The target operating system determined that it is compatible with WebSphere Application
Server and
had configured environment variables for it.
ANSWER: B

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NO.30 What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service?
A.Client mode
B.Server mode
C.Not shared
D.Push only
E.Both push and pull
F.Broadcast mode
ANSWER: CDE

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