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Exam Code: 190-841
Exam Name: Lotus (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Implementing and Administering Security)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Secure Socket Layer is defined on your Domino server with a certificate from a public Internet
Certificate Authority. Users can successfully connect and authenticate with SSL V3 client types. However,
users with SSL V2 type clients are unable to connect or verify the certificate issued by the public Internet
Certificate Authority. Which of the following statements about your Domino SSL server security remains
true with this configuation?
A.SSL must be enabled for all server ports
B.SSL can ONLY be enabled for POP3, IMAP and SMTP
C.If a server is using SSL, users must access the server using a browser
D.You can require SSL connections for all databases on a server or for an individual databaseWArialZX
Answer: D

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NO.2 Barbara wishes to migrate her company's Notes certifier to the new Certificate Authority process. She
has chosen to encrypt the certifier id with the server id instead of creating a specific trusted id. What
Domino server console command must be issued to secure the certifier?
A.load activate ca
B.load ca unlock
C.tell ca activate
D.tell ca unlock WArialZX
Answer: C

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NO.3 Curtis enabled extended access control on his domain's Domino Directory to restrict access to the
Internet password field against malicious attacks. Once xACLs were enabled, some LDAP queries
ceased functioning. Which of the following best represents why certain LDAP queries ceased functioning?
A.LDAP may not be utilized against xACL enabled Domino Directories
B.Anonymous access via LDAP is not allowed against xACL Domino Directories
C.LDAP anonymous access is not controlled by the list of fields in the All Server Configuration document
D.Authentication may only be performed with full canonical names once xACLs are enabled on a Domino
DirectoryWArialZX
Answer: B

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NO.4 Steve configures the CRL which creates a new Internet certifier and stores it in the certifier's ICL
database. Steve can also store the CRL certifier where?
A.He can also store the CRL in his local id file for revocation and ICL lookups
B.He can also store the CRL in the Domino Directory in the CA's certifier document
C.He can also store the CRL in the Internet Lockout database to verify presented certificates
D.He can also store the CRL in the Certificate Authority database on the server verifying the ICL
databaseWArialZX
Answer: B

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NO.5 Effective access has been chosen as a security measure for certain databases in your environment.
The first database to be enabled is the Domino Directory. As the administrator responsible for configuring
the change, which of the following two items must be met for effective access to be enabled while allowing
users to still address mail via type-ahead?
A.The ACL must have -Default- set to Reader and the server must have the LDAP task loaded
B.The ACL must have Anonymous removed and the -Default- setting must be a minimum of reader
C.Groups may not be utilized in the ACL and LDAP, IMAP and POP3 must not be enabled on that server
D.The selection to enforce a consistent ACL should be enabled and users must have a minimum of
reader accessWArialZX
Answer: D

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NO.6 The size of a SSL session key is determined by which of the following?
A.The cipher being used
B.The user password strength
C.The creation date of the SSL certificate
D.The expiration of the public key presented by the connecting hostWArialZX
Answer: A

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NO.7 You wish to verify a digital signature of a mail message sent to your from a foreign organization. Which
of the following best verifies the signature?
A.The existence of a cross-certificate
B.Download the web Internet certificate from the sender's website
C.Send an encrypted reply message to the originator of the message
D.Open the message properties dialog and verify the field $X-MIMEDigSig has a value of 1WArialZX
Answer: A

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NO.8 Louisa, a mobile user, had her laptop stolen at a recent convention. You, as the Domino administrator,
did not have a security policy in effect and Louisa had used part of her name for the password. When
Louisa logged into the server at the office she received a prompt that contained the following:
"You have a different password on another copy of your ID file and you must change the password on this
copy to match"
She claims she had the same password across all her id files previously, so she called you in attempt to
fix her issue. Which of the following is the reason for the prompt and the best preventative step to take as
the administrator?
A.She has passed her grace period for password changes so her id must be recertified
B.Password quality checking is enabled and her account should be deleted and recreated
C.She utilizes a Smartcard for access and you cannot have passwords match across id files
D.Password verification is enabled and you should clear her password history in her person
documentWArialZX
Answer: D

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NO.9 A phone call prompts you to immediately revoke an Internet certificate due to a compromised key.
After verifying the caller as a trusted source, what database will you access to revoke the Internet
certificate that was compromised?
A.The CA database for the certifier that issued the certificate
B.The ICL database for the certifier that issued the certificate
C.The CRL database for the certifier that issued the certificate
D.The CERT database for the certifier that issued the certificateWArialZX
Answer: B

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NO.10 You have created a list of IP Addresses that are allowed access and a list of IP Addresses that are
denied access for web security. Both are placed in the appropriate fields and the other access fields are
set to the default. Which field takes precedence BY DEFAULT when the same IP address is found in both
lists and not in any of the alternate default set fields?
A.The Allow Access field
B.The Deny Access field
C.The Substitution Access field
D.An error will be presented stating an address may not be in both fieldsWArialZX
Answer: A

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NO.11 Password quality above which of the following levels are resistant to automated password attacks?
A.6
B.10
C.13
D.16WArialZX
Answer: C

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NO.12 Authentication has been enabled for the SMTP TCP/IP port on your Domino SMTP server. Through
testing you are able to successfully authenticate and send mail to the server over SMTP. However, other
users are unable to connect successfully. You have verified their username and passwords are being
entered correctly. Which of the following best describes why the users cannot authenticate via SMTP with
your Domino server?
A.Users may only connect via SSL to provide a username and password for SMTP
B.The server requires more complex passwords to be supplied for Internet ports
C.Enforce Server Access setting is enabled and the users are not in the Access Server field
D.The users do not have the security policy document applied to their person documents for SMTP
connectionsWArialZX
Answer: C

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NO.13 Your Domino Directory contains two organizations that are cross certified since the merger took place
two years ago. There are numerous users under both organizational certifiers. You work under the
certifier for NewSports and the other organizational certifier is under the name SportsFundamentals.
SportsFundamentals is cross certified with ShippingEtc and there cross certificate is contained in the
Domino Directory. You now need access to the same ShippingEtc domain so you enter User Security and
obtain all the cross certificates from the Domino Directory. However, this certifier will not populate your
personal address book as a cross certificate. Which of the following is the cause?
A.You do not share a common ancestor
B.The cross certificate is encrypted
C.You cannot pull cross certificates from the Domino Directory
D.Only servers may use cross certificates in the Domino DirectoryWArialZX
Answer: A

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NO.14 As a user, you receive HTML mail regularly that prompts you to retrieve certificates when certain
portions require it. However, you would like to trust numerous consumer web sites in advance of receiving
their emails. Which of the following provides the best way to accomplish this?
A.Manually enter the name of each site into your personal address book
B.In User Security, retrieve Internet security certificates from each server over whatever port is required
C.Open you Domino Directory for your domain and import all the cross-certificates into your personal
address book
D.Send out a certificate request email to each site and use Actions-Accept Certificate from your in-box for
each email returned containing a certificate attachedWArialZX
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following identifies the two types of ECLs ?
A.Public ECL and Personal ECL
B.Workspace ECL and Limited ECL
C.Administrator ECL and User ECL
D.Administration ECL and Workstation ECLWArialZX
Answer: D

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NO.16 Andrea, the Domino Administrator, is attempting to provide SSL authentication for each Internet Site
Document. She has obtained the domain names for each site her company will be utilizing on the Domino
server. However, she has not created an Administration ECL for her Notes users at this time. Which of the
following is required to accomplish the SSL authentication for each site?
A.A single keyring file for the web server must be assigned with a new Administration ECL
B.A server keyring file for each site document must be assigned with no change to the Administration ECL
C.Multiple keyring files for each site document must be assigned with duplicate Administration ECLs for
each site
D.Multiple HTTP instances on the Domino server must be initiated with no change to the Administration
ECL for the main Domino domain, but new Administration ECLs must be created for the additional
domainsWArialZX
Answer: B

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NO.17 You, as the Domino administrator, have defined a password quality restriction of 1 for a user id file.
Which of the following best describes what is required from the user when changing their password?
A.No password is required
B.Any password is required
C.Special characters are required
D.Any password that does not start with a space is requiredWArialZX
Answer: B

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NO.18 Mitchell needs to temporarily allow an undefined owner of a script access to the local file system.
When prompted by Lotus Notes, which of the following options provides the script to run while preventing
future unprompted access?
A.Start trusting the signer to execute this action
B.Trust the signer to execute this action for this Notes session
C.Allow the signer to access local file sytem on all but network drives
D.Embed the signer as an allowed ACL entry and prompt for future accessWArialZX
Answer: B

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NO.19 Users have had recovery information embedded into their id file since version 5.0.8 of Notes and
Domino. They currently run version 8.0 of Notes and Domino. However, Joshua is moving from the Notes
administration team and into another group. Matthew will take his place. Which of the following describes
the steps necessary to remove Joshua and add Matthew in his place as a proper id recovery authority for
the certifier utilized for user creation and recertification?
A.Matthew and Joshua will have no stpes to perform. Adding the new administrator to the administrators
group in the Domino Directory automatically recertifies the users
B.Joshua must issue an Adminp request to "remove admin from certifier" from the Domino Administrator
client and then Matthew must enter an Adminp request to "add admin to certifier". Both must be approved
by another administrator before recertifying users
C.Recovery information in the certifier id utilized to certify and register users must be modified to add
Matthew and remove Joshua. A recertification of the users under that certifier must occur. Notes 7.0.1 will
NOT prompt the user to accept the change in recovery information
D.The certifier in question must have all recovery authorities removed. A recertification of existing users
must occur to accept the removal of Joshua. Then the certifier must be modified again to add Matthew as
a recovery authority and the users recertified a final time. They will then accept Matthew as a recovery
authority when prompted.WArialZX
Answer: C

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NO.20 Internet certificates for regular employees are being stored separately from certificates for previous
contractors of your organization. You were managing multiple Internet certifiers for each group. Which
one of the following best describes where Certificate Revocation Lists are stored for the contractors?
A.In the ICL database and the Domino Directory
B.In the Certificate Authority document in the Domino Directory
C.In the security settings policy document in the Domino Directory
D.In a TXT file defined by the notes.ini of the administration serverWArialZX
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 190-980
Exam Name: Lotus (Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 System Administration Operating Funda)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 201 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Jose is creating a new password for himself. Which one of the following will "password quality
checking" indicate is the least secure password?
A.Mixed case passphrases
B.All uppercase passwords
C.Passphrases containing numbers and punctuation
D.Words found in Notes dictionaries during spell check
Answer: D

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NO.2 John registered a new server. In which one of the following was the Server document placed?
A.NAMES.NSF
B.CERTLOG.NSF
C.CATALOG.NSF
D.DIRECTORY.NSF
Answer: A

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NO.3 While you used the Domino Administrator client, what two subtabs may be found under the Messaging
tab?
A.Router and Mailboxes
B.Mail and Tracking Center
C.Mail Users and SMTP Configuration
D.Mail Statistics and Mail Analysis
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which one of the following group types is used to prevent access to Domino servers?
A.Mail only
B.Servers only
C.Deny list only
D.Access Control List only
Answer: C

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NO.5 Where does the Domino Server Setup program store the certifier ID file by default?
A.In the Domino Name and Address Book
B.In any network drive location that you specify during installation
C.In the directory you specify as the Domino data directory during installation
D.On the Domino Administrator's local machine in My Documents\Lotus\Certifiers directory
Answer: C

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NO.6 The server Web1/XYZ defaults to Server document settings to obtain configuration information for
Internet protocols when which of the following features is not enabled?
A.Internet Site documents
B.Global Domain documents
C.Single Sign-on documents
D.Web Configuration documents
Answer: A

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NO.7 Why did Tom designate Server1/Boise/Acme as the Administration Server for the Domino Directory?
A.To make sure that all new users were registered on Server1/Boise/Acme.
B.To prevent users from making changes to the Domino Directory on Server1/Boise/Acme.
C.To force administrators to make all changes to the Domino Directory on Server1/Boise/Acme.
D.To ensure that the Administration Process would process all Domino Directory changes on
Server1/Boise/Acme.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Terry is working on a document in a database on a server that is DAOS enabled. While in the
document, Terry replaces the attachment with a new version. Which of the following occurs to the
attachment in the DAOS store?
A.The server adjusts references to the attachment in DAOS
B.The server removes the reference from all mail files that pointed to that original file reference
C.The server removes the previous attachment entirely from DAOS and inserts the link to the new
attachment
D.The server sends the full previous attachment to all user mail files that pointed to that original file
reference
Answer: A

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NO.9 Ben attempts to send Jerry a Notes mail message. Both users are on the same mail server. Which of
the following paths will the message take?
A.The Router will receive the message from Ben and deliver it immediately to Jerry's mailfile via SMTP
B.The Router will receive the message from Ben and deliver it immediately to Jerry's mailfile via NRPC
C.The server will receive the message from Ben and send it to the mail hub for distribution back to the
mail server and then delivery to Jerry's mailfile
D.The SMTP task will receive the message from Ben and immediately send it to Jerry after following the
SMTP to Notes path defined in the configuration settings documents for the mail server
Answer: B

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NO.10 You have the ability to set different levels of administration access to users. Which of the following
represents the hierarchy order for privileges from greatest to least access?
A.Server administrator > View Console administrator > Administrator > User administrator
B.Full access administrator > Administrator > Full console administrator > System administrator
C.Full Console administrator > System Administrator > Full Access administrator > Administrator
D.Full server access administrator > Console rights administrator > User administrator > View access
only administrator
Answer: B

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NO.11 You are building Domino Domain Monitoring probes in Domino 8.5 and wish to create a standard
Possible Solution for all of them. Which of the following document types allow this capability?
A.Modular
B.Embedded
C.Component
D.Corrective
Answer: A

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NO.12 Tom set up a Domino domain and organization. Which one of the following describes the difference
between a Domino domain and a Domino organization?
A.There is no difference. Domains and organizations function in the same manner.
B.Domains refer to a company's hierarchical structure. Organizations refer to users who share a common
organizational certifier.
C.Domains are comprised of users and servers that share a common Domino Directory. Organizations
define security and naming conventions.
D.Domains define security and naming conventions. Organizations are comprised of users and servers
that share a common Domino Directory.
Answer: C

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NO.13 In addition to Notes databases, which of the following files on a Domino server should be backed up in
order to ensure that new users can be created in case of loss of the server?
A.Cache.dsk
B.Certifier ID files
C.The user's desktop.dsk file.
D.The server's bookmark.nsf file.
Answer: B

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NO.14 In which of the following databases may you view all the database ACLs on a server by user name,
access level, or by database?
A.Log
B.Names
C.Catalog
D.Certlog
Answer: C

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NO.15 OCSP on the Domino server is enabled through which of the following?
A.Server document
B.Security policy
C.Server configuration document
D.Certificate authority database
Answer: B

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NO.16 Susan has created a list of IP Addresses for the web server that are allowed access and a list of IP
Addresses that are denied access. Both are placed in the appropriate fields. Which field takes
precedence BY DEFAULT when the same IP address is found in both lists?
A.The Allow Access field
B.The Deny Access field
C.The Substitution Access field
D.An error will be presented stating an address may not be in both fields
Answer: A

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NO.17 Jon registered a new user. Which one of the following authentication elements is NOT found in that
user's ID file?
A.Public key
B.Private key
C.Certificates
D.HTTP password
Answer: D

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NO.18 Your Organizational certifier is named Acme. Each city in your company has an Organizational Unit
certifier from the Acme certifier that references the city. Susan wants to create an Organizational Unit
certifier below the city Organizational Unit certifier. Which one of the following must she have to
accomplish this?
A.Reader access to the domain's directory
B.A copy of the Acme Organizational certifier
C.A copy of the city's Organizational Unit certifier
D.Copies of both the Acme Organizational certifier and the location's Organizational Unit certifier
Answer: C

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NO.19 In what order would Richard build a naming convention for his organization where user names would
have the following format:
Chris Maxwell/Amsterdam/Acme
AJ Mathis/Sydney/Acme
A.Create a Common Name (CN) Certifier named Acme and then create Organizational (O) Certifiers
named Amsterdam and Sydney
B.Create an Organizational (O) Certifier named Acme and then create Organizational Unit (OU) certifiers
named Amsterdam and Sydney
C.Create a Organizational (O) Certifier named Amsterdam, an Organizational (O) Certifier named Sydney
and an Organizational Unit (OU) certifier named Acme
D.Create two Organizational (O) Certifiers named Acme and use one to create an Organizational Unit
(OU) Certifier named Amsterdam and the other O Certifier to create an OU Certifier named Sydney
Answer: B

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NO.20 John is setting up a single domain with a single organization. As a result, all Domino server IDs must
be created using which one of the following?
A.The same cross-certificate
B.The same administrator certificate
C.The same country (C) certificate or a child of that country (C) certificate
D.The same organizational (O) certificate or a child of that organizational (O) certificate
Answer: D

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Exam Code: JN0-341
Exam Name: Juniper (ER.Associate(JNCIA-ER))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Which three initial configuration methods are supported on J-series routers? (Choose three.)
A.CLI
B.J-Web
C.JUNOScope
D.autoinstallation
E.PCMCIA flash card
Correct:A B D

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NO.2 What is shown by the command show interfaces extensive fe-0/0/0 but not shown by the
command show interface detail fe-0/0/0?
A.input error counter
B.interface MTU size
C.input packets counter
D.the IP address on logical interface fe-0/0/0.0
Correct:A

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NO.3 Which type of IGP should you use to achieve scalability in a large enterprise network?
A.link-state protocol
B.path-vector protocol
C.Bellman-Ford protocol
D.distance-vector protocol
Correct:A

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NO.4 What is the default route preference for static routes?
A.0
B.5
C.10
D.170
Correct:B

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NO.5 Which two field-replaceable units (FRUs) are hot-swappable? (Choose two.)
A.Routing Engine on M10i
B.Physical Interface Card on M7i
C.fan tray on J-series routers
D.Physical Interface Modules on J6300 router
Correct:A B

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NO.6 Which three options can be used with the load CLI command? (Choose three.)
A.merge
B.replace
C.partial
D.complete
E.override
Correct:A B E

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NO.7 Which command copies the factory-default files to your backup media?
A.request system snapshot rescue
B.request system snapshot factory
C.request system snapshot default
D.request system snapshot as-primary
Correct:B

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NO.8 What are two functions of the Intel IXP processors? (Choose two.)
A.keepalives
B.route-lookup
C.CRC validation
D.Layer 2 decapsulation
Correct:A C

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NO.9 In configuration mode you see the following prompt: [edit interfaces fe-1/1/1] user@router#
Which command will take you to operational mode?
A.end
B.exit
C.quit
D.exit configuration-mode
Correct:D

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NO.10 The J-Web application can install the JUNOS software from which two locations? (Choose two.)
A.SDX
B.local PC
C.BSD shell
D.remote host
Correct:B D

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NO.11 What are two methods of accessing a Juniper enterprise router? (Choose two)
A.RSH
B.HTTPS
C.console
D.J-Config
Correct:B C

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NO.12 Which CLI command displays all OSPF LSAs received by the local router?
A.show ospf neighbor
B.show ospf database
C.show ospf interface
D.show ospf adjacency
Correct:B

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NO.13 What is one configuration method for loading a factory default configuration onto a J-series
router?
A.load override reset
B.load factory-default
C.rollback factory-default
D.request system factory-default
Correct:B

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NO.14 How many committed configuration files are stored on the Juniper Networks enterprise router?
A.4
B.15
C.48
D.50
Correct:D

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NO.15 Which CLI command will ping destination 10.0.29.1 ten times and display the incoming interface
of the received packet?
A.ping count 10 10.0.29.1 detail
B.ping number 10 10.0.29.1 detail
C.ping count 10 10.0.29.1 extensive
D.ping number 10 10.0.29.1 extensive
Correct:A

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NO.16 Which J-Web menu displays the users currently logged into the CLI?
A.Monitor > Users
B.Manage > Users
C.Monitor > System
D.Manage > System
Correct:C

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NO.17 What does the number one (1) represent for interface fe-0/0/1?
A.port number
B.PCI slot number
C.channel number
D.virtual PIC number
Correct:A

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NO.18 Which two statements regarding system logging on a Juniper enterprise router are correct?
(Choose two.)
A.The system log has a proprietary format.
B.System logs must be sent to a remote device.
C.New system logs can be created and archived.
D.Most software processes create their own logs.
Correct:C D

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NO.19 Which multicast address does RIPv2 use for route updates by default?
A.224.0.0.2
B.224.0.0.5
C.224.0.0.9
D.255.255.255.255
Correct:C

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, the protect-re filter is applied as an input filter on the
lo0.0 interface and all possible services are enabled under [edit system services]. Which two
methods can you use to access the router? (Choose two.)
A.FTP
B.SSH
C.Telnet
D.J-Web
Correct:B D

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Exam Code: JN0-531
Exam Name: Juniper (FWV, Specailist(JNCIS-FWV))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 What must be configured differently for a route-based VPN and a policy-based VPN?
A. proxy-id
B. proposals
C. remote gateway type
D. binding the tunnel interface
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two statements regarding NHTB are correct? (Choose two.)
A. If the spoke device is not a ScreenOS device, manual configuration of NHTB is required on the hub.
B. If the spoke device is not a ScreenOS device, manual configuration of NHTB is required on the spoke.
C. When configuring routing on a spoke device with one tunnel interface the route to the tunnel interface
does not require a routing gateway address.
D. When configuring routing on a hub device with one tunnel interface terminating multiple VPN spokes,
the route to the tunnel interface does not require a routing gateway address.
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Which command will show address translation for sessions that have ended?
A. snoop
B. get session
C. get log traffic
D. get dbuf stream
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which command is used to verify that IGMP is running correctly?
A. get route igmp
B. get igmp query
C. set igmp query interface e0/1
D. exec igmp interface e0/1 query
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the hub and spoke VPN uses route-based VPNs and has intra-zone blocking enabled on
the Evil zone.
What is the minimum number of policy rules required to establish full, bi-directional communications
between all locations?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: D

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the source IP address of the multicast traffic?
A. 236.1.1.1
B. 10.10.10.1
C. 20.20.20.10
D. 20.20.20.200
Answer: B

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NO.7 A VPN tunnel that uses a CA certificate will not become active.
What would be causing this problem?
A. The CA certificate has been revoked.
B. The devices are not synced with the NTP server.
C. The device certificates were generated before the CRL was downloaded thus making them invalid.
D. The CRL has been downloaded, but the certificates have a CDP extension thus making them invalid.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You have configured the following on your device.
The VPN is not working properly. What is the problem?
A. The policy needs to have the action tunnel.
B. The VPN needs to be bound to the tunnel interface.
C. The tunnel interface needs to be placed in the trust zone.
D. The tunnel interface needs to be associated with the interface in the untrust zone.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two item pairs are exchanged during Phase 2 negotiations? (Choose two.)
A. proxy-id, SA proposal list
B. IKE cookie, SA proposal list
C. hash [ID + Key], DH key exchange
D. SA proposal list, optional DH key exchange
Answer: AD

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NO.10 What will happen if you type the command unset protocol vrouter trust-vr protocol ospf?
A. OSPF stops running, but the OSPF configuration is left intact.
B. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from the vrouter only.
C. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from all interfaces in the vrouter.
D. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from the vrouter and from all interfaces in the vrouter.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What must be enabled to protect Phase 2 key exchanges?
A. Phase 1 PFS
B. Phase 2 SHA
C. Phase 2 3-DES
D. Phase 2 DH key exchange
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two statements are correct regarding NHTB? (Choose two.)
A. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get nhtb.
B. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get interface <tunnel interface>.
C. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get interface <physical interface>.
D. NHTB is enabled automatically when multiple VPNs are bound to a single tunnel interface.
Answer: BD

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NO.13 Which item in a virtual system is shared by default?
A. trust zone in the trust-vr
B. trust zone in the untrust-vr
C. untrust zone in the trust-vr
D. untrust zone in the untrust-vr
Answer: C

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NO.14 Your ScreenOS device has come under a SYN flood attack. In the logs, which severity level would you
search to see this event?
A. Alert
B. Critical
C. Warning
D. Emergency
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which two statements are true regarding the use of dialup VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. They are initiated only by the remote host PC.
B. They can only be connected to the trust zone on a ScreenOS device.
C. They are configured so that the first IKE message will always have the SA proposal list.
D. They can be used as an alternative to connect remote users when a ScreenOS device has reached the
maximum number of LAN-to-LAN tunnels.
Answer: AC

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NO.16 You create a policy-based VPN, and select an address group for the source address.
What will be the source component of the proxy-id seen by the remote security gateway?
A. the default 0.0.0.0/0
B. the last member of the address group
C. the first member of the address group
D. the subnet that contains all addresses in the address group
Answer: A

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NO.17 How many tunnels would need to be created to build a full mesh between 10 VPN devices?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 45
D. 100
Answer: C

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NO.18 What should you configure to insure an HA cable failure does not result in both devices attempting to
become master?
A. failover count
B. secondary path
C. monitor threshold
D. heartbeat threshold
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which three items do you need to download and install on your ScreenOS device for IKE gateways to
be able to use digital certificates without OCSP? (Choose three.)
A. the CRL list
B. the SCEP list
C. a local certificate
D. the CA public key certificate
E. the CA private key certificate
Answer: ACD

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NO.20 You have implemented a hub and spoke VPN. On the hub, there are two tunnel interfaces, one to
each spoke. Both tunnel interfaces are in the same zone.
Which two configuration options will control traffic between the spokes? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the common zone to block inter-zone traffic.
B. Configure the common zone to block intra-zone traffic.
C. Configure each tunnel interface to block intra-zone traffic.
D. Configure one of the tunnel interfaces in a different zone a set policies.
Answer: BD

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NO.21 Which CLI command identifies the multicast sources visible to your ScreenOS device?
A. get route pim
B. get igmp source all
C. exec pim interface all query
D. get vrouter trust-vr protocol pim
Answer: D

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NO.22 A VPN tunnel that uses a CA certificate has failed Phase 1 negotiations. The peer's certificate has
been rejected.
What would be causing this problem?
A. The CA certificate has been revoked.
B. One of the peering devices are not synced with the NTP server.
C. The device certificates were generated before the CRL was downloaded thus making them invalid.
D. The CRL has been downloaded, but the certificates have a CDP extension thus making them invalid.
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which three statements are true regarding IKE Phase 1? (Choose three.)
A. Placing the SA proposal list in message 1 is an option.
B. The digital certificate is used to decrypt the session key.
C. The DH key exchange is used to validate the session key.
D. The DH key exchange and digital certificates are both optional.
E. The proxy-id is used to determine which SA is referenced for the VPN.
Answer: ABC

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NO.24 Which ScreenOS CLI command is necessary for configuring IGMP on interface ethernet0/1?
A. set igmp interface ethernet0/1
B. set multicast interface ethernet0/1
C. set interface ethernet0/1 igmp router
D. set igmp interface ethernet0/1 enable
Answer: C

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NO.25 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the hub and spoke VPN uses route-based VPNs.
What is the minimum number of policy rules required to establish full, bi-directional communications
between all locations?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.26 What do you need to change in your VPN configuration to use certificates for authentication?
A. Replace the preshared key with the certificate name.
B. Select PFS in Phase 2, then select the certificate to be used.
C. Use a custom set of Phase 1 proposals, all beginning with rsa-.
D. Use a custom set of Phase 2 proposals, all beginning with rsa-.
Answer: C

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NO.27 You have created a VPN to a dynamic peer.
Which two configured parameters must match? (Choose two.)
A. static side peer-id
B. dynamic side local-id
C. static side IP address
D. dynamic side IP address
Answer: AB

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NO.28 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the route-based VPN on the SSG 5 needs to configured to allow access only from your PC
to Server G. The SSG 550 is configured with a policy-based VPN from Server G to your PC's host
address.
Assume the gateways are static.
Which proxy-id must be configured?
A. Local: 10.0.0.5/24Remote: 20.0.0.5/24
B. Local: 10.0.0.5/32Remote: 20.0.0.5/32
C. Local: 1.1.1.250/32Remote: 4.4.4.250/32
D. Local: 1.1.1.250/24Remote: 4.4.4.250/24
Answer: B

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NO.29 During main mode negations a failure has occurred while using IKE certificates.
Which message pair would you review to troubleshoot this failure?
A. messages 1 & 2
B. messages 2 & 3
C. messages 3 & 4
D. messages 5 & 6
Answer: D

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NO.30 To which three ScreenOS components can a policy-based routing policy be bound? (Choose three.)
A. zone
B. policy
C. interface
D. virtual router
E. virtual system
Answer: ACD

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Exam Name: Juniper (JNCIA-JUNOS EXAM OBJECTIVES)
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Total Q&A: 190 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which command do you use to go from the shell prompt to the CLI prompt.?
A.run cli
B.cli
C.start cli
D.edit
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which three protocols use UDP as a transport protocol by default? (Choose three)
A.HTTP
B.TFTP
C.DNS
D.SNMP
E.SMTP
Answer: BCD

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about the forwarding table? (Choose two)
A.The forwarding table lists each source protocol and preference for each destination
B.The forwarding table constains only active routes
C.The forwarding table is used to process transit packets
D.The forwarding table is stored in compact flash
Answer: BC

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NO.4 You need to control SSH, HTTP, and Telnet access to an MX240 router through any interface.You have
decided to use a firewall filter.How should you apply the firewall filter?
A.as an outbound filter on interface fxp0
B.as an outbound filter on interface lo0
C.as an inbound filter on interface fxp0
D.as an inbound filter on interface lo0
Answer: D

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NO.5 Referring to the exhibit,
which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A.The route 192.168.1.0/25 is accepted
B.The route 192.168.2.0/25 is accepted
C.OSPF routes will be exported into RIP
D.RIP routes will be exported into OSPF
Answer: AD

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NO.6 Referring to the exhibit, which type of classifier is being used in this CoS configuration?
[edit fireall family inet filter COS-CLASSIFIER]
user@router# show
term MANAGER {
form {
soruce-address {
192.168.200.0/25;
}
destination-address {
100.100.100.1/32;
}
}
then {
forwarding-class expedited-forwarding;
accept;
}
}
term ALL-OTHER-TRAFFIC {
then accept;
}
[edit interfaces ge-0/0/1]
user@router# show
unit 0 {
family inet {
filter {
input COS-CLASSIFIER
}
address 192.168.200.1/24;
}
}
A.behavior aggregate
B.policer
C.multifield
D.forward policy
Answer: C

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NO.7 When using the monitor traffic command on Junos devices, which UNIX-based utility is accessed?
A.snoop
B.tcpdump
C.monitor
D.tail
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are two valid match criteria for a routing policy? (Choose two)
A.OSPF area ID
B.prefix list
C.port
D.time-to-live (TTL)
Answer: AB

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NO.9 What is the default import routing for OSPF?
A.Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the 3 routing table
B.Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet7.0 routing table
C.Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet4.0 routing table
D.Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet.0 routing table
Answer: D

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NO.10 You have been asked to create a static route with a next hop that is not directly connected to the
router.Which configuration parameter enables the static route to accomplish this scenario?
A.resolve
B.indirect
C.next-hop
D.recursive
Answer: A

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NO.11 What represents the binary equivalence of 207?
A.11001111
B.11101011
C.11010111
D.11010101
Answer: A

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NO.12 Whitch three user authentication methos are supported by the Junos OS? (Choose three)
A.RADIUS
B.CHAP
C.local user database
D.tacacs+
E.PAP
Answer: ACD

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NO.13 Given the configuration and routing table in the exhibit, which routes will be advertised to OSPF
neighbors because of the demo policy?
A.192.168.0.0/16 only
B.192.168.0.0/17 only
C.192.168.50.0/24 and 192.168.51.0/24
D.192.168.0.0/17, 192.168.50.0/24 and 192.168.51.0/24
Answer: D

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NO.14 What must be configured prior to the first commit after factory defaults are loaded?
A.root authentication
B.default gateway
C.hostname
D.management services
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which two statements are true about the rescue configuration file? (Choose two)
A.It must include a root password
B.It is roll back file number 50, and you can recover it by issuing rollback 50
C.It is created by issuing request system configuration rescue save
D.It is updated automatically when you commit
Answer: AC

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NO.16 Given the routing entries shown in the exhibit, which next-hop IP address will be used for the
destination IP address 192.168.1.142? (Assume that only static routes are available for the destination)
A.10.20.106.10
B.10.20.14.131
C.10.18.1.1
D.10.20.14.130
Answer: D

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NO.17 You issue the ping interface t1-1/1/0 1.1.1.1 bypass-routing count 1000 rapid command
Which statement is correct?
A.The bypass-routing parameter is used to test the density on the T1 line
B.The bypass-routing parameter cannot be used on a T1 interface
C.The bypass-routing parameter allows you to ping a host through an interface that has no route through
it
D.The bypass-routing parameter allows you to ping a local WAN interface without generating any
outbound traffic
Answer: C

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NO.18 You are the top of hierarchy and must configure OSPF on inteface so-0/0/0 unit 100.Which two
achieve this result? (Choose two)
A.set protocols set ospf area 0 set interface so-0/0/0.100
B.set protocols ospf area 0 interface so-0/0/0.100
C.edit protocols ospf interface so-0/0/0.100
D.edit protocols ospf area 0 set interface so-0/0/0.100
Answer: BD

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NO.19 What is the default protocol preference for OSPF internal routes?
A.10
B.15
C.150
D.160
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which account is used to access a Junos device in a factory-default configuration?
A.root
B.admin
C.juniper
D.user
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 312-76
Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (Disaster Recovery Professional Practice Test)
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NO.1 Della works as a security manager for SoftTech Inc. She is training some of the newly recruited
personnel in the field of security management. She is giving a tutorial on DRP. She explains that the major
goal of a disaster recovery plan is to provide an organized way to make decisions if a disruptive event
occurs and asks for the other objectives of the DRP. If you are among some of the newly recruited
personnel in SoftTech Inc, what will be your answer for her question?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Guarantee the reliability of standby systems through testing and simulation.
B. Protect an organization from major computer services failure.
C. Minimize the risk to the organization from delays in providing services.
D. Maximize the decision-making required by personnel during a disaster.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Which of the following are some of the parts of a project plan?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Risk identification
B. Team members list
C. Risk analysis
D. Project schedule
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.3 You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation. You need to identify
the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will help you in this?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Estimate activity duration
C. Risk identification
D. Qualitative analysis
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following levels of RAID provides security features that are availability, enhanced
performance, and fault tolerance?
A. RAID-10
B. RAID-5
C. RAID-0
D. RAID-1
Answer: A

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NO.5 Availability Management deals with the day-to-day availability of services. Which of the following takes
over when a 'disaster' situation occurs?
A. Capacity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Service Continuity Management
D. Service Reporting
Answer: C

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NO.6 You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect several
stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available to share
information on the project risks?
A. Communications Management Plan
B. Resource Management Plan
C. Risk Management Plan
D. Stakeholder management strategy
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following types of attacks occurs when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary
software or program between two communicating hosts?
A. Password guessing attack
B. Dictionary attack
C. Man-in-the-middle attack
D. Denial-of-service attack
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following backup sites takes the longest recovery time?
A. Cold backup site
B. Hot backup site
C. Warm backup site
D. Mobile backup site
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are responsible for network and information security at a large hospital. It is a significant concern
that any change to any patient record can be easily traced back to the person who made that change.
What is this called?
A. Availability
B. Non repudiation
C. Confidentiality
D. Data Protection
Answer: B

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NO.10 Mark is the project manager of the HAR Project. The project is scheduled to last for eighteen months
and six months already passed. Management asks Mark that how often the project team is participating in
the risk reassessment of this project. What should Mark tell management if he is following the best
practices for risk management.?
A. At every status meeting of the project team, project risk management is an agenda item.
B. Project risk management happens at every milestone.
C. Project risk management has been concluded with the project planning.
D. Project risk management is scheduled for every month in the 18-month project.
Answer: A

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NO.11 You work as a Database Administrator for Bluewell Inc. The company has a SQL Server 2005
computer. The company asks you to implement a RAID system to provide fault tolerance to a database.
You want to implement disk mirroring. Which of the following RAID levels will you use to accomplish the
task?
A. RAID-5
B. RAID-0
C. RAID-1
D. RAID-10
Answer: C

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NO.12 IT Service Continuity Management (ITSCM) is used to support the overall Business Continuity
Management (BCM) in order to ensure that the required IT infrastructure and the IT service provision are
recovered within an agreed business time scales. Which of the following are the benefits of implementing
IT Service Continuity Management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It prioritizes the recovery of IT services by working with BCM and SLM.
B. It minimizes costs related with recovery plans using proper proactive planning and testing.
C. It confirms competence, impartiality, and performance capability of an organization that performs
audits.
D. It minimizes disruption in IT services when it follows a major interruption or disaster.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 Which of the following statements are true about classless routing protocols?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. The same subnet mask is used everywhere on the network.
B. They extend the IP addressing scheme.
C. IGRP is a classless routing protocol.
D. They support VLSM and discontiguous networks.
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 Which of the following statements best describes the difference between the role of a data owner and
the role of a data custodian?
A. The custodian makes the initial information classification assignments and the operations manager
implements the scheme.
B. The custodian implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the
operations manager.
C. The data custodian implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the
data owner.
D. The data owner implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the
custodian.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following cryptographic system services assures the receiver that the received message
has not been altered?
A. Authentication
B. Confidentiality
C. Non-repudiation
D. Integrity
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following is the simulation of the disaster recovery plans?
A. Walk-through test
B. Full operational test
C. Paper test
D. Preparedness test
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following response teams aims to foster cooperation and coordination in incident
prevention, to prompt rapid reaction to incidents, and to promote information sharing among members
and the community at large?
A. CERT
B. CSIRT
C. FedCIRC
D. FIRST
Answer: D

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NO.18 You work as an Incident handling manager for Orangesect Inc. You detect a virus attack incident in the
network of your company. You develop a signature based on the characteristics of the detected virus.
Which of the following phases in the Incident handling process will utilize the signature to resolve this
incident?
A. Eradication
B. Identification
C. Containment
D. Recovery
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following tools in Helix Windows Live is used to reveal the database password of password
protected MDB files created using Microsoft Access or with Jet Database Engine?
A. Asterisk logger
B. FAU
C. Access Pass View
D. Galleta
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes.
B. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in floppy disks.
C. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored onsite only.
D. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only.
Answer: A,D

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NO.21 Which of the following is a set of exclusive rights granted by a state to an inventor or his assignee for a
fixed period of time in exchange for the disclosure of an invention?
A. Snooping
B. Patent
C. Utility model
D. Copyright
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which of the following control measures are considered while creating a disaster recovery plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Detective measures
B. Supportive measures
C. Corrective measures
D. Preventive measures
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.23 Which of the following options is an intellectual property right to protect inventions?
A. Snooping
B. Patent
C. Copyright
D. Utility model
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which of the following BCP teams is the first responder and deals with the immediate effects of the
disaster?
A. Emergency management team
B. Damage assessment team
C. Off-site storage team
D. Emergency action team
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following is established during the Business Impact Analysis by the owner of a process in
accepted business continuity planning methodology?
A. Recovery Consistency Objective
B. Recovery Time Objective
C. Recovery Point Objective
D. Recovery Time Actual
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which of the following roles is responsible for the review and risk analysis of all the contracts on
regular basis?
A. The IT Service Continuity Manager
B. The Configuration Manager
C. The Supplier Manager
D. The Service Catalogue Manager
Answer: C

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NO.27 Pete works as a Network Security Officer for Gentech Inc. He wants to encrypt his network traffic. The
specific requirement for the encryption algorithm is that it must be a symmetric key block cipher. Which of
the following techniques will he use to fulfill this requirement?
A. AES
B. DES
C. IDEA
D. PGP
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which of the following is the duration of time and a service level within which a business process must
be restored after a disaster in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in
business continuity?
A. RTA
B. RPO
C. RCO
D. RTO
Answer: D

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NO.29 Fill in the blank with the appropriate number:
RAID-________ is a combination of RAID-1 and RAID-0.
A. 10
Answer: A

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NO.30 Which of the following BCP teams is the first responder and deals with the immediate effects of the
disaster?
A. Emergency action team
B. Emergency-management team
C. Damage-assessment team
D. Off-site storage team
Answer: A

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