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Exam Code: 1Z0-876
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Solaris Certified Associate Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 157 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-04

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Jane has listed the files in her home directory as shown in the exhibit. Choose the answers that correctly
describes the files in this directory. (Choose three.)
A. The file fixit is a symbolic link to the file repair
B. The file buttons can be executed by a user in the sales group
C. The file gadget could be a hard link to the file buttons
D. The file search can be modified by users in the sales group
E. The file repair is a symbolic link to the file fixit
F. Users in the sales group can enter the widgets directory
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows a listing of Jane's home directory. Jane wants to delete the directory dir1. Choose the
command that would remove only the dir1 directory.
A. rm ./widgets/*
B. rm ./widgets/dir1
C. rm -r ./widgets
D. rmdir ./widgets/dir1
Answer: D

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NO.3 Consider the following command:
$ cal 9 1752
The cal command is followed by which one of the following choices? A. arguments
B. options
C. variables
D. preferences
Answer: A

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows information about data in Jane's home directory. Which answer describes where the
directory named dir1 is stored within the file system.
A. In the inode associated with directory dir1
B. In the directory file called dir1
C. In the ACL associated with dir1
D. In the directory file called widgets
E. In the inode associated with directory widgets
F. In the ACL associated with widgets
Answer: D

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NO.5 Jane is trying to configure the swat utility. The software and man pages are located in the /usr/sfw
directory. When Jane attempts to use the man command the following message appears:
$ man swat
No manual entry for swat.
Choose the command that Jane can execute to display the man page.?
A. man /usr/sfw/swat
B. man -f /usr/sfw/swat
C. man -M /usr/sfw/man swat
D. man -s 1M swat
Answer: C

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows a listing of Jane's directory. Consider the first entry buttons. Choose the
commands that might have been used to create this file.
A. cp snippets buttons
B. ln gadget buttons
C. ln snippets buttons
D. ln search buttons
E. cp gadget buttons
F. ln -s snippets buttons
Answer: B

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit is a listing of your current directory. Based on the information shown, choose the file from the
listing that is a regular file.
A. acme
B. instance
C. screen
D. door_pipe
Answer: D

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
Jane has listed the contents of her home directory as shown in the exhibit. Choose which
command she would have entered to produce this output.
A. ls -lR
B. ls -lLR
C. ls -lr
D. ls -LR *
E. ls -lr *
Answer: A

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NO.9 Your logging into the system as user Val, you are notified upon login that you must change your user
password on the system. Your current password is 2co0lu! Choose the password that meets the
requirements for a user changing the password on a Solaris 10 system.
A. 2co0l4u
B. valiscol
C. 2C00L4u2
D. 321 123!
Answer: C

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
Frank needs to add write access for the sales group, so he uses the following command:
$ chmod g+w project543.dat Choose which answer reflects the result of this command.
A. Only the sales group will be given write access to the file.
B. Only the sales group and market group will have write access to the file.
C. The sales group and market group and user jane will have write access to the file.
D. The sales group and market group and user jane and others will have write access to the file. Answer:
C

NO.11 You have a file that contains a list of parts in a single column. You need to append the text
string .ex2009 to each entry. You will use the vi editor and the last line mode to append this text to each
entry. Which command will add the text correctly?
A. :%s/*/.ex2009/
B. :%s/.$/.ex2009/
C. :%s/$/.ex2009/
D. :%s/*$/.ex2009/
Answer: C

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NO.12 Val has gathered information about the data stored in her home directory using the following command
line.
$ du -sk * | sort -n | tail > file2
Which answer correctly describes what happens when the command is invoked?
A. The tail command redirects stdin to file2
B. The sort command redirects stdout to the du command
C. The stdout from the du command is sent to the sort command
D. The stderr from the tail command will be sent to file2
Answer: C

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NO.13 Frank executes the following single command line:
$ ln /export/home/frank/audio_books/enders_game /export/home/frank/bookdata Choose the files that
would result from executing this command.
A. -rw-r--r-- 2 frank frank 1699 Oct 29 00:51 enders_game
B. lrwxrwxrwx 1 frank frank 27 May 17 00:54 /export/home/frank/audio_books/enders_game ->
/export/home/frank/bookdata
C. -rw-r--r-- 2 frank frank 1699 Oct 29 00:51 bookdata
D. lrwxrwxrwx 1 frank frank 42 May 17 00:54 /export/home/frank/bookdata ->
/export/home/frank/audio_books/enders_game
Answer: C

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
Examine the exhibit. Choose the answer the best describes the 8th field of the output of an ls command.
A. file creation time
B. inode change time
C. last access time
D. last modify time
Answer: D

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NO.15 Jane is about to edit a file with the vi editor. She executes the following command:
$ vi ./customer_sat.txt
Choose the vi editor mode that Jane will be using when the file is opened.
A. command mode
B. edit mode
C. last line mode
D. ex mode
Answer: A

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NO.16 Tina has executed the following command:
$ affiliate.sh 2>>/var/log/worklog
Choose the statement that is true concerning this command.
A. stdin is redirected to a file.
B. stderr is redirected to a file.
C. stdout is redirected to a file.
D. all output from the script is redirected to a file.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows a listing of Jane's directory. Consider the entry repair. Choose the commands that
might have been used to create this file.
A. cp /export/home/jane/things/fixit /export/home/jane/repair
B. ln /export/home/jane/repair /export/home/jane/things/fixit
C. ln /export/home/jane/things/fixit /export/home/jane/repair
D. mkfile 32b /export/home/jane/repair
E. ln -s /export/home/jane/things/fixit /export/home/jane/repair
F. ln -s /export/home/jane/repair /export/home/jane/things/fixit
Answer: E

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows the first few lines of a system run control script. In which shell is this script executed?
A. Bourne Shell
B. Z Shell
C. C Shell
D. Korn Shell
E. Bash Shell
Answer: A

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
Examine the exhibit. Based on the information in this exhibit, which files can user Jane delete?
A. file1 file2 log
B. file2 log
C. file1 file3 log
D. file1 file2 file3 log
Answer: D

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NO.20 You have a default install of Solaris 10 on your desktop system. You are user tim. Examine the
following command and output.
$ ls -l project465.odt
-rw-r--r-- 1 tim tim 394 Apr 9 15:29 project465.odt
You need to allow another user access to write the file. You do not have access to the root
account. Which command can be used to grant write access to the file?
A. chown command
B. chgrp command
C. setfacl command
D. nischown command
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-515
Exam Name: Oracle (Data Warehousing 11g Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-04

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NO.1 How many Exadata Storage Server cells can be used in a grid?
A. 7
B. 14
C. 128
D. No practical limit
Answer: D

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NO.2 You want partitions to be automatically created when data that does not fit into current date range
loaded. Which type of partitioning would you implement?
A. Hash
B. List
C. Invisible
D. Interval
Answer: D

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NO.3 Indentify the true statement about REF partitions.
A. REF partitions have no impact on partition-wise joins.
B. Changes to partitioning in the parent table are automatically reflected in the child table.
C. Changes in the data in a parent table are reflected in a child table.
D. REF partitions can save storage space in the parent table.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You think that result set caching might provide some benefits for your current data warehouse scenario.
You perform some analysis on the composition of the queries used in the scenario. Identify the result of
the analysis that would indicate the most potential for improvement with result set caching.
A. The scenario consists mainly of queries that are used infrequently.
B. The scenario consists mainly of queries that work on data which changes frequently.
C. The scenario consists mainly of queries with long run times and small result sets.
D. All data warehouse scenarios will benefit from result set caching.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Identify the action that you CANNOT perform using Database Resource Manager.
A. Define Consumer Groups.
B. Create rules to map sessions to Consumer Groups.
C. Define a Resource Plan.
D. Allocate individual CPUs to Consumer Groups.
Answer: D

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NO.6 For which type of query is the SQL result cache automatically disabled?
A. Queries that access data which changes frequently
B. Queries that return large amounts of data
C. Queries that use SQL functions such as SYSDATE
D. Queries that are used infrequently
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which is NOT among Oracle SQL Analytic functions included in Oracle Database 11g?
A. Ranking functions
B. Substring functions
C. Window aggregate functions
D. LAG/LEAD functions
E. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.8 Identify the control structure that would NOT be defined as part of a data flow with Oracle Data
Integrator.?
A. Loops
B. Conditions
C. Error handling
D. GOTOs
Answer: D

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NO.9 You will be implementing a data warehouse for one of your customers. In your design process, which
index type is most likely to be used to improve the performance of some queries where the data is of low
cardinality?
A. Bitmap indexes
B. B*-tree indexes
C. Reverse indexes
D. Invisible indexes
Answer: A

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NO.10 For data warehousing, identify the benefits that would NOT be provided by the use of RAC.
A. Distribute workload across all the nodes.
B. Distribute workload to some of the nodes.
C. Provide parallel query servers.
D. Provide high availability for all the operations.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-560
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Unified Business Process Management Suite 11g Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 77 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-04

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NO.1 A task form is generated as a (n) __________.
A. portlet that gets called in the BPM Workspace
B. generic JSP page that is displayed in an I Frame in the BPM Workspace
C. bounded task flow that is called by the BPM Workspace
D. unbounded task flow that is called by the BPM Workspace
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which start event is allowed in a subprocess?
A. Timer Start Event
B. Boundary Event
C. Message Start Event
D. None Start Event
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two are predefined instance attributes that can be used in data associations and expressions?
Select two.
A. ActivationCount
B. Component
C. LoopCounter
D. String
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 You can implement complex server-side validation logic to the task form by using a custom__________.
A. data control
B. managed bean
C. EL script
D. UI component
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which three tasks need to be accomplished to allow successful publishing of process metrics to BAM?
Select three.
A. setting BPM project preferences to enable BAM as a data target
B. configuring the BAM Adapter on the SOA server
C. updating the Enterprise Manager configuration for Disable Action
D. importing BAM dashboards
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 Which two are true about project data objects? Select two.
A. Any process in the project can access a project data object.
B. The value of a project data object does not vary between processes.
C. Project data objects can be only used as input arguments to a process.
D. Project data objects can be used in data associations and expressions.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Identify one activity that is used to create a process hierarchy as a parent child relationship.?
A. Sequence Flow
B. Call Activity
C. Service Task
D. Send Task
Answer: B

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NO.8 BPM capability maturity levels describe__________.
A. the capabilities of the BPM business analyst
B. the length of time the BPM application has been in production
C. the strategic and tactical levels of enterprise adoption of BPM
D. BPM concepts, consistently applied, facilitating sharing and reuse
Answer: C

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NO.9 Where are the two places that you can see a visual representation of the path a running process has
taken? Select two.
A. BPM Workspace
B. Enterprise Manager
C. Process Composer
D. JDeveloper MDS Explorer
E. WebLogic Console
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which two features are provided by BPM Process Analytics? Select two.
A. simulation for a BPM process
B. easy-to-use process metric collection
C. easy-to-use modeling tools
D. custom reporting dashboards
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-803
Exam Name: Oracle (Java SE 7 Programmer I )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-04

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NO.1 Given the code fragment:
int b = 4;
b -- ;
System.out.println (-- b);
System.out.println(b);
What is the result?
A. 2 2
B. 1 2
C. 3 2
D. 3 3
Answer: A

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NO.2 An unchecked exception occurs in a method dosomething()
Should other code be added in the dosomething() method for it to compile and execute?
A. The Exception must be caught
B. The Exception must be declared to be thrown.
C. The Exception must be caught or declared to be thrown.
D. No other code needs to be added.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two are valid instantiations and initializations of a multi dimensional array?
A. int [] [] array 2D ={ { 0, 1, 2, 4} {5, 6}};
B. int [] [] array2D = new int [2] [2];
array2D[0] [0] = 1;
array2D[0] [1] =2;
array2D[1] [0] =3;
array2D[1] [1] =4;
C. int [] [] []array3D = {{0, 1}, {2, 3}, {4, 5}};
D. int [] [] [] array3D = new int [2] [2] [2];
array3D [0] [0] = array;
array3D [0] [1] = array;
array3D [1] [0] = array;
array3D [0] [1] = array;
E. int [] [] array2D = {0, 1};
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 View the exhibit:
public class Student { public String name = ""; public int age = 0; public String major = "Undeclared"; public
boolean fulltime = true;
public void display() {
System.out.println("Name: " + name + " Major: " + major); } public boolean isFullTime() {
return fulltime;
}
}
Given:
Public class TestStudent {
Public static void main(String[] args) {
Student bob = new Student ();
Student jian = new Student();
bob.name = "Bob";
bob.age = 19;
jian = bob; jian.name = "Jian";
System.out.println("Bob's Name: " + bob.name);
}
}
What is the result when this program is executed.?
A. Bob's Name: Bob
B. Bob's Name: Jian
C. Nothing prints
D. Bob s name
Answer: B

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NO.5 Given the code fragment: interface SampleClosable {
public void close () throws java.io.IOException;
}
Which three implementations are valid?
A. public class Test implements SampleCloseable { Public void close () throws java.io.IOException { / /do
something } }
B. public class Test implements SampleCloseable { Public void close () throws Exception { / / do
something } }
C. public class Test implementations SampleCloseable { Public void close () throws Exception { / / do
something } }
D. public classTest extends SampleCloseable { Public voidclose ()throws java.IO.IOException{ / / do
something } }
Answer: D

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NO.6 Given the code fragment:
Int [] [] array = {{0}, {0, 1}, {0, 2, 4}, {0, 3, 6, 9}, {0, 4, 8, 12, 16}};
Systemout.printIn(array [4] [1]);
System.out.printIn (array) [1][4]);
int [] [] array = {{0}, {0, 1}, {0, 2, 4}, {0, 3, 6, 9}, {0, 4, 8, 12, 16}};
System.out.println(array [4][1]);
System.out.println(array) [1][4]);
What is the result?
A. 4 Null
B. Null 4
C. An IllegalArgumentException is thrown at run time
D. 4 An ArrayIndexOutOfBoundException is thrown at run time
Answer: D

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NO.7 Given:
public class ScopeTest {
int z;
public static void main(String[] args){
ScopeTest myScope = new ScopeTest();
int z = 6;
System.out.println(z);
myScope.doStuff();
System.out.println(z);
System.out.println(myScope.z);
}
void doStuff() {
int z = 5;
doStuff2();
System.out.println(z);
}
void doStuff2() {
z=4;
}
}
What is the result?
A.
6 5 6 4
B.
6 5 5 4
C.
6 5 6 6
D.
6 5 6 5
Answer: A

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NO.8 Given the code fragment:
String valid = "true";
if (valid) System.out.println ( valid );
else system.out.println ("not valid");
What is the result?
A. Valid
B. not valid
C. Compilation fails
D. An IllegalArgumentException is thrown at run time
Answer: C

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NO.9 Given the code fragment:
int [] [] array2D = {{0, 1, 2}, {3, 4, 5, 6}};
system.out.print (array2D[0].length+ "" ); system.out.print(array2D[1].getClass(). isArray() + "");
system.out.println (array2D[0][1]);
What is the result?
A. 3false1
B. 2true3
C. 2false3
D. 3true1
E. 3false3
F. 2true1
G. 2false1
Answer: D

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NO.10 Given: public class DoCompare1 {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String[] table = {"aa", "bb", "cc"};
for (String ss: table) {
int ii = 0;
while (ii < table.length) {
System.out.println(ss + ", " + ii);
ii++;
}
}
How many times is 2 printed as a part of the output?
A. Zero
B. Once
C. Twice
D. Thrice
E. Compilation fails.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Your client has deployed the UPK Developer on a Citrix server, so content authors can access it remotely
in Citrix seamless windows.The target application was also installed on the same server.The authors are
unable to record content.
Choose three actions that you would take to help discover the problem.
A.Ensure that the "Time to hide recorder window before screen capture" setting in the Options dialog box
is Increased to at least three seconds.
B.Ensure that the target application (the web browser for web applications) runs in the same Citrix
session as the Developer.
C.Ensure that keyboard shortcuts are not recorded automatically.
D.Ensure that the screen shot capture key is changed from the default.
E.Ensure that the sound is correctly set up in Citrix.
Answer: B,D,E Explanation: Remote and Virtual Environments The Developer can operate in remote and
virtual environments such as Citrix and VMware.The following are known issues when operating the
Developer in these environments:
Citrix: *(B)When recording a target application running in a Citrix session, then Developer must be
running in the same Citrix session.
*(E)Sound output will likely be choppy.
* (D)Citrix does not pass the [PrintScreen] key to applications running in seamless windows.The
Developer uses the [PrintScreen] key as the default key for recording topics.Therefore, the Recorder will
not properly recognize the [PrintScreen] key in a Citrix seamless window.The recording key can be
changed in the Options dialog box in the Developer.
Reference: OracleUser Productivity Kit, Installation And Administration Release 11.0,Remote and Virtual
Environments

NO.2 During the installation of 110 PRO, you receive an error message.What is the first task you do when
entering My Oracle Support ?
A.Log a Sev 1 Service request.
B.Look in the Knowledge base for known issues.
C.Look in patches and updates to see if there is a patch to download to resolve the issue.
D.Create a forum post asking other clients and support representatives for clues or steps to be taken to
resolve the issue.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are asked to attend a presales call to support your field account representative with a sale of
UPK.The account representative has asked you to participate in the meeting because the client has
questions about deploying In-Application Support using the SmartHelp browser add-in option in UPK.
The client wants to know what is required to deploy SmartHelp to their user community.
Identify the best response.
A.SmartHelp is deployed from a web server by having the user access setup file in the playerpackage
directory.Users installing SmartHelp must have admin privileges and configure the browsers for ActiveX
controls.
B.SmartHelp is deployed to the user community by installing the UPK single-user option on the end user's
desktop and configuring the browser for ActiveX controls.
C.The SmartHelp browser add-in is deployed using the in-application support configuration utility to push
an ActiveX control to the user population.
D.SmartHelp needs only a web server to run on and is plug-in free.Therefore, it does not require
Installation to deploy it to the user population.
Answer: C

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NO.4 UPK Developer requires Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.Some of the machines in the organization
where Developer will be installed already have .NET Framework 3.5 installed, but most do
not.Organizational policy dictates that ALL of the machines where Developer will be installed DO NOT
have access to the internet for security reasons.The UPK installer comes packaged with a "bootstrap"
installer for .NET Framework 3.5, which connects to the Internet to install .NET Framework 3.5 from there.
Identify the method that would ensure that UPK Developer is installed securely with its .NET Framework
3.5 requirement.
A.Temporarily allow all machines access to the Internet during the duration of the distribution of the
installation, so that the "bootstrap" installer can connect properly.
B.Embed the full .NET Framework 3.5 installer package within the UPK installer, allowing the UPK
installer to use that package Instead of "bootstrap."
C.Ensure force installation of .NET Framework 3.5 on ALL machines before the installation of UPK
Developer.
D.Install only to the machines with .NET Framework 3.5 already installed; delay installation on other
machines until they have been updated with .NET Framework 3.5.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A content administrator has asked you to troubleshoot a multi-user UPK Installation: the authors unable
to connect to the server.The administrator sent you the following message from a Windows event log:
The current identity (NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE) does not have write access to
"C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET \Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files'.
Where can you fix this permission problem?
A.On the Oracle database server
B.On the affected client workstations
C.In the UPK library
D.On the application server
Answer: D

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NO.6 You are engaged as a UPK administrator and publisher for a customer who is in the process of
upgrading their Oracle EBS application suite to R12.x.The UPK content development team has finished
the first set of topics and asked you to publish the content, so their SMEs can directly access the topic
they are responsible for.The SMEs are busy and do not have time to download Individual topics.
Which method should you choose to publish and distribute the content?
A.Publish the content to the individual topic outputs and host the topics on a web server providing links to
each topic.
B.Publish the content using the Player/LMS output and distribute the player package folder to each SME.
C.Publish the content using the Player/LMS output and host the content on a web server and provide the
SMEs with a link to the play.exe file.
D.Publish the content using the Player/LMS output and host the content on a web server and provide
content developers a link tokp.html.
Answer: B

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NO.7 UPK supported languages are grouped by the Tier Structure, Tier 1 and Tier 2.Which of the following is
not translated if it is a Tier 2 language?
A.Player Interface
B.Developer
C.Default and Microsoft template Text
D.Static text in Document publishing formats
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is required to enable end-user access of UPK-generated content-sensitive help
in an application using the UPK Help Integration method?
A.The application administrator must manually map context IDs from each page to the appropriate URLs
for help.
B.The application administrator must make minor configuration changes to the application.
C.The application developer must write custom code to enable the help system to launch nonapplication
help files.
D.The application administrator must use the UPK Developer ¯ s C on t ex t Ed it o r t o m ap t he app li ca ti on
context.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A UPK content author has a single-user installation of UPK 3.6.1 on his or her computer.The author
would like to keep this installation on his or her machine, but also wants to Install the single user of UPK
11.0.
Identify the process that enables this.
A.The content author needs to create an .odarc file of all the content he or she wants to keep from the
3.6.1 single-user Installation, and then uninstall 3.6.1.After 3.6.1 is uninstalled, the author can install
11.0.Two different versions of UPK single user cannot be installed on one computer at the same time.
B.The content author can run the UPK 11.0 setup and install UPK 11.0 in a folder structure that is different
from where the UPK 3.6.1 is installed.Both versions of the developer can be launched independently.
C.The content author can run the UPK 11.0 setup and Install UPK 11.0 in the same folder structure as the
3.6.1 Installation.This will upgrade the 3.6.1 installation to version 11.0.Two different versions of UPK
single user cannot be installed on one computer at the same time.
D.The content author can run the UPK 11.0 setup and install UPK 11.0 in the same folder structure as the
3.6.1 installation.Because the cache locations of 11.0 and 3.6.1 are different, the two versions of the UPK
can be launched independently.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A content author requests your help.
The UPK Developer does not correctly recognize objects and action areas while recording a target
application.The author provides you with a sample topic to review.You notice that the target application
appears in a VMware Player virtual machine window in the screenshots.The action areas cover the entire
virtual machine window, and the objects in the target application cannot be recognized.
How can you fix this problem?
A.The author should disable automatic recording, because it degrades object recognition when used with
a virtualization software.
B.The author should maximize the VMware Player window during recording so that the UPK Developer
can recognize the objects in the application.
C.The UPK Developer should be installed in the virtual machine, and the target application should be
recorded inside the virtual machine.
D.Exact Match is disabled by default for VMware Player in "Target Application Configuration" in the
Options dialog box.This setting must be enabled.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Identify two true statements about the installation of the Knowledge Center User Import Utility.
A.The Knowledge Center User Import Utility can be installed only before the Knowledge Center Is
installed.
B.The Knowledge Center User Import Utility can be installed on the same server as the Knowledge
Center.
C.The Knowledge Center User Import Utility can be installed on any workstation that can connect to the
Knowledge Center.
D.The Knowledge Center User Import Utility can be installed only in the Knowledge Center application
root directory.
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 What are the minimum permissions needed to run the install scripts?
A.DB_Accessadmin, DB_Owner
B.DataReader, DataWriter, DB_Owner
C.DataReader, DataWriter
D.DB_Accessadmin
E.DB_Owner
Answer: D

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NO.13 You have defined a number of customizations for the Knowledge Center user interface.However, when
you test them, the customizations are not displayed.You have verified that the modified files have all been
placed in the proper directories.
What might be the reason your customizations are not appearing?
A.The local browser cache on the client system accessing the Knowledge Center must be cleared for the
customizations to appear.
B.You may be using an unsupported browser.Test your customizations in Internet Explorer version 8 or 9.
C.You may not have restarted the Web services on the Knowledge Center server.This will reload the.lng
and .cus files on the web server.
D.It you logged in to the Knowledge Center before you performed your customization, you will need to log
in as a new user to see the customizations.
Answer: C

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NO.14 You can deploy your UPK content by placing the Player package on a web server and making it
available to your users.You do this by copying the contents of the Player Package folder in the published
content.Then you will need to create a link to two files.
Identify the two files.
A.play.exe
B.index.html
C.default.htm
D.tocx.html
E.kp.html
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 While you are working offline, the training administrator changes the permissions to the folder in which
you have created a new topic.The permissions are changed to "List Only."
What happens when you go online and your library is synchronized with the server?
A.The content administrator is warned automatically and will restore your folder permissions so that your
work is safe.
B.The document will appear in the Lost document view.
C.The permissions for the folder are automatically restored to modify permissions during the
synchronization.
D.I can revert the permissions myself after I receive a system warning.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Identify three compatible file formats that can be used when updating or customizing your logo in UPK.
A.JPG
B.PPT
C.TIF
D.BMP
E.EXE
F.PDF
G.HTML
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.17 What is the first step to set up an unattended installation of the Knowledge Center?
A.Run the executable silently.
B.Record the parameter file by using the /r parameter.
C.Log a support ticket.
D.Use a third-party program to record the installation options.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Your client needs to reclaim space on their server.To reclaim the space, they want to purge the deleted
documents found in the library.Your client expressed concern that some of the documents may still be
referenced by other documents in the library.These documents may need to be recovered in the future.
Which action do you need to take to purge only the documents that are no longer being used?
A.Open the Related Documents pane from the View menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no links in, as displayed in the lower panel.
B.Open the Related Documents pane from the View menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no links to, as displayed in the upper panel.
C.Open the Brokenlinks panefrom the View Menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no broken links in.
D.Open the Lost Document view.Because this shows only the document with no links in, you can purge all
deleted files from view.
E.Select all files in the deleted Document view and purge them, because those documents that are linked
to by nondeleted documents will be purged.
Answer: A

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NO.19 You maintain a single UPK Developer Library that includes content for the entire organization.You
have created an outline that includes all of the content for the current project.However, some of the
content is sensitive and should be visible only to the Human Resources group.
Which process enables you to maintain this library of content and deliver it to the organization without
exposing the sensitive content to the entire organization?
A.Duplicate the outline and remove the Human Resources topics from the duplicate.Deliver the full outline
to the Human Resources group and the duplicate outline to the entire organization.
B.Create a new outline and link all of the existing modules with the exception of the Human Resources
module.Deliver the full outline to the Human Resources group and the smaller outline to the entire
organization.
C.Create a Role named "Sensitive." Add this Role to all of the Human Resources content.Publish the
outline and use Roles to filter the content appropriately based on the user's role.
D.Create a State named Human Resources" Add this State to the Human Resources content.Use
"Publish by State" to publish one outline with and one outline without the Human Resources State.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Identify three statements that are true about the Installation of service pack updates.
A.You can install these updates without having to reinstall the Developer.
B.If both UPK and Knowledge Center need to be updated, you must run the installer twice.
C.As part of the service pack, you must reinstall the UPK Developer.
D.After installing a service pack for the Developer, you should update each Developer Library with the
appropriate service pack documents.
E.Service packs will run automatically and you do not need to worry about updating your toolset.
Answer: A,B,D

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Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Business Intelligence Foundation Suite 11g Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-04

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NO.1 Query limits tab can be accessed through________.
A. Security Manager, Query tab, Application role dialog box, Permissions
B. Security Manager, Application Roles tab, Query dialog box, Permissions
C. Security Manager, Application Roles tab, Application role dialog box, Permissions
D. Security Manager, Application Roles tab, Application role dialog box, Query Properties
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is an example of a Session Variable?
A. ETL Load Date
B. User Organization
C. OLAP DSN
D. Top Customers by Revenue
Answer: B

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NO.3 The administration tool is the developer's interface to the repository file. It allows the development
of and changes to the metadata repository file. Which statement is true?
A. Changes to the repository can only be carried out in offline mode.
B. Multiple developers can work on one repository at the same time.Results can be merged later on.
C. All aspects of security are being held in the repository file.
D. Opening the rpd.filein online mode results in performance Issues for the application user.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The highest sales amount for this year is $10,000. If you create a rank measure for sales this year
and display it on a report, the value will be________.
A. $10,000
B. 0
C. 1
D. Year
Answer: C

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NO.5 When a customer wants to get sales numbers by day, how is data stored in the Star Schema, if the
data is loaded nightly?
A. The lowest level of aggregation
B. The highest level of aggregation
C. Multiple levels of aggregation
D. Independently from aggregation level
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which option describes how OBIEE Integrates with Planning?
A. OBIEE primarily accesses Planning using standard Essbase integration techniques.
B. OBIEE provides complete access to all Planning data through the Analytic Data Model (ADM)
layer.
C. Planning is not a supported OBIEE source.
D. OBIEEintegrates with Planning directly through relational database access.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which two components are required for all OBIEE installations?
A. Admin Server
B. RCU Schema
C. Managed Server
D. Node Manager
E. Oracle 11g
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 Which installation option is used to install into an existing Fusion Middleware Home?
A. Software Only Install
B. Simple Install
C. EnterpriseInstall
D. Cannot installinto an existing Fusion Middleware Home
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are the two methodologies that are followed within an OBIEE implementation?
A. Do not use prototypes
B. Use an iterative approach
C. Start with a small model and then enhance the repository
D. Start with a big repository and trim it down with the requirements
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Which option is used to enter the rank function when creating a new rank measure?
A. Initialization Block
B. Expression Builder
C. Connection Pool
D. Web Catalog
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-R25
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SurePOS 700 Series Models 743 and 784 Technical Mastery )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-03

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NO.1 A customer is considering upgrading to SurePOS 784 systems. They need two PCI slots and they are
concerned about PCI compatibility, restrictions, and limitations. What information should a technical
specialist provide this customer? (Choose two.)
A. Full-length PCI feature cards are not supported.
B. The 784 provides support for only two PCI Express slots.
C. PCI slots are only available as a standard feature on the SurePOS 743 models.
D. If a customer has two PCI adapters to migrate forward they will need to select the additional riser
option that provides two PCI slots.
E. There is nothing to worry about, since all SurePOS x43 and x84 models have two PCI slots that will
accommodate full-size and short PCI cards.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Which three systems management capabilities are supported on the SurePOS x43 and x84 models.?
(Choose three.)
A. Wake on LAN (WOL)
B. Wake on WiFi (WOW)
C. Wake on Touch (WOT)
D. Remote Deployment Manager (RDM)
E. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.3 On which model is an 80GB hard disk drive and a CD/DVD standard?
A. S83
B. C83
C. S43
D. C43
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement is true about the location of the two hard disk drives that the SurePOS x43 and x84
accommodate?
A. Both hard disk drives are stacked vertically at the back of the system unit to the left of the power supply.
B. Both hard disk drives are stacked vertically at the right front of the system unit directly behind the drive
bay door.
C. The first hard disk drive is located at the front left of the system and the second drive is located next to
it horizontally (front right).
D. The first hard disk drive is located at the front right of the system directly behind the drive bay door and
the second drive is located at the back of the system unit.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Light-Path Management consists of which three components? (Choose three.)
A. LEDs
B. remote management
C. service processor
D. USB memory manager
E. uninterruptible power supply (UPS)
F. second hard drive containing diagnostics
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 Which component can be replaced without removing the pullout tray?
A. I/O module
B. memory module
C. processor fan
D. hard disk drive
Answer: D

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NO.7 The IBM SurePOS x43 point-of-sale (POS) system uses the prefixes "S", "E", and "C" to indicate
specific models. What do these prefixes stand for?
A. "S" refers to the superior model; "E" indicates a model with Windows preloaded; "C" indicates a
customer model.
B. "S" indicates an administrative model; "E" indicates a model with Windows preloaded; "C" indicates a
controller model.
C. "S" refers to the model geared to the supermarket segment; "E" refers to the entry level model; "C"
indicates a customer model.
D. "S" refers to the model geared to the specialty segment; "E" refers to the entry level model; "C"
indicates a controller model.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the standard warranty service type offered for SurePOS x43 and x84 systems?
A. Depot Service
B. Carry in Service
C. IBM On-Site Repair
D. IBM EasyServ Repair
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which three types of ports are standard on all SurePOS x43 and x84 models? (Choose three.)
A. two VGA ports
B. two PC USB ports
C. two RS-485 ports
D. one parallel port
E. two powered USB ports
F. audio mic-in/line out ports
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.10 What is the minimum clearance required around the system unit for proper airflow and cooling?
A. one inch on all sides
B. six inches on all sides
C. two to three inches on all sides
D. four to five inches on all sides
Answer: C

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