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Exam Code: 000-N17
Exam Name: IBM (IBM B2B Integration SaaS Technical Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-03

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NO.1 What IBM cloud based SaaS solution enables data to be converted from one EDI format to the required
trading partner's format for their systems?
A.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service
C.IBM Sterling Process Automation
D.IBM Sterling Transformation Services
Answer: D

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NO.2 The top obstacles of lack of budget and cost of systems that your customer's suppliers and buyers feel
prevents them from doing more B2B e-Commerce with their trading partners is known as which of the
following?
A.Total cost of ownership (TCO)
B.Complexity of integration
C.Lack of resources
D.B2B Infrastructure Management
Answer: A

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NO.3 When your customer needs to move broad based megabyte and gigabyte files in the cloud with a
one-to-many manner with their trading partners, which solution will best meet your customer's need?
A.IBM Sterling B2B Integration Services
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service
C.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration
D.IBM Sterling Transformation Services
Answer: B

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NO.4 What tool can IBM's business partners leverage that shows how a full outsourced managed services
operation can show savings and return a handsome ROI in a relatively short time to a customer?
A.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service Calculator
B.IBM Sterling B2B Integrator Calculator
C.IBM B2B Integration Services ROI Calculator
D.IBM B2B Automation Savings Calculator
Answer: C

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NO.5 The three solutions that make up the IBM Sterling Cloud Services or SaaS solutions are:
A.IBM Sterling B2B Integrator, IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration Network, and IBM Sterling File Transfer
Service
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service, IBM Sterling B2B Integration Services, and IBM Sterling B2B
Integrator
C.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration Network, IBM Sterling File Transfer Service, and IBM Sterling B2B
Integration Services
D.None of the above.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-N15
Exam Name: IBM (IBM IOC Intelligent Water Technical Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 38 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-03

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NO.1 What asset is NOT used to support IW v1?
A. Water Information Hub
B. Leak Management Hub
C. Non Revenue Water
D. Meter Usage Anomaly
Answer: B

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NO.2 How is the "Seasonal Usage" ratio calculated?
A. Summer Usage / Winter Usage
B. Winter Usage / Summer Usage
C. Summer Usage / Overall Usage
D. Winter Usage / Overall Usage
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT a way in which the Work Optimization component provides value.?
A. Optimizing work crew schedules
B. Detecting water usage patterns
C. Using crews more efficiently
D. Decreasing transport costs
Answer: B

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NO.4 How many points of variability are called on in the WIH (Water Information Hub) programming model?
A. 7
B. 5
C. 6
D. 1
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are the kinds of external systems that WIH (Water Information Hub) can ingest data from?
A. SCADA systems only
B. Meter systems only
C. SCADA systems, Meter systems, EAM systems
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-N12
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SPSS Data Collection Technical Support Mastery Test v1 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-03

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NO.1 A customer desires to set up a project that will be synchronized to remote Data Collection Interviewer
clients. What must a customer do to enable the project for remote synchronization with Interviewer.?
A. Upload the RemoteSync.mdd file to the project
B. Set IsMobile project property to True
C. Activate the project in CATI mode
D. Assign the project to the Remote Interviewing feature
Answer: B

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NO.2 What feature of IBM SPSS Data Collection Interviewer Server allows a customer to define the
requirements for the allowed numbers of respondents who have certain characteristics such as age,
gender, and/or socioeconomic class?
A. Interviewer Monitoring
B. User Management
C. Sample Management
D. Quota
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer reports that their installation failed with an error, indicating that the PMSetup could not be
run and that the mrDPMServer3 service failed to start. From the pre-installation tasks of Data Collection,
what are the missing permissions for the Running User which could lead to that error?
A. "Profile single process" and "Profile system performance"
B. "Create a token object" and "Create a pagefile?"Create a token object" and "Create a pagefile
C. "Debug programs" and "Create global objects"
D. "Log on as a service" and "Log on as a batch job"
Answer: D

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NO.4 If a customer wants to allow specific users to be able to perform particular functions and access
particular features within Interviewer Server Administration, what must an administrator user do?
A. Assign the user, or a role the user belongs to, to the specified activity
B. Assign the user to the built-in administrator role thereby granting access to all activities
C. Create a SQL server login for the user and grant the user access to the mrInterviewData database
D. Assign the user to a local Windows group profile on the server which has the required access
Answer: A

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NO.5 In order for a customer to show whether differences in the distribution of counts in a particular table are
significant or whether they are merely due to chance, which one of the following should be done?
A. Calculate the standard error in the table to make sure it is less than 1
B. Run a statistical test such as column proportions test or column means test
C. Insert the standard deviation in the table and make sure it is greater than 1
D. Determine that the weighted base is less than the actual un-weighted base
Answer: B

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NO.6 A new version is added to a .mdd file each and every time a user does what?
A. Uploads or downloads a copy of the questionnaire from the Files activity in Interviewer Server
Administration
B. Re-opens the mdd file in Author or Author Professional
C. Saves the .mdd file using Author or Author Professional
D. Activates a questionnaire
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following is a pre-requisite for installing the IBM SPSS Data Collection 6.0.1 Server
software?
A. Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS)
B. Microsoft SharePoint
C. Microsoft BizTalk Server
D. Microsoft Exchange Server
Answer: A

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NO.8 IBM SPSS Data Collection 6.0.1 Server software is supported on which server operating system(s)?
A. Microsoft Windows Server 2000, 2003, and 2008
B. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 R2 and Max OS X Server
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2008 and Linux
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 R2 and Microsoft Windows Server 2008
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer has a table created based on a data set in which the proportion of the various groups in the
total population is not accurately reflected. What can be applied to the table to help balance the
responses to more accurately reflect the true proportion?
A. Apply one of the available balancing mechanisms available in the Table Properties dialog for Survey
Reporter to automatically balance the proportions of the various groups in the data set
B. Apply a filter to hide the appropriate portion of the respondent cases that results in unbalanced data in
the total population
C. Apply an extrapolation algorithm to insert extra representative records to help balance the data in the
total population
D. Apply weighting to the table to inflate responses from one portion of the total population while deflating
responses from another
Answer: D

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NO.10 Before a Data Collection desktop product can store an asset to a repository, the .dql file must be:
A. edited on the client machine and included in the project files during the asset storing process
B. edited via C&DS Deployment Manager for every asset being stored
C. downloaded from the C&DS Deployment Manager repository to the client machine and placed in the
installation directory of the Data Collection desktop product
D. placed in a C&DS repository folder via Deployment Manager and referenced on the client via the DQL
Path property in a defined Question Repository connection
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M608
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Retail Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-03

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NO.1 Which of the following is a key Technology challenge faced by Retailers?
A.Retail Blurring of Segments and Channels
B.Private Label Proliferation
C.Pervasive Connectivity and Mobile Devices
D.Urban population is greater than rural population for the 1st time in human history
Answer: A

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NO.2 What functionality does IBM WebSphere Commerce product deliver to the client?
A.Web applications
B.Scenario analysis
C.Business intelligence
D.Financial services
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a primary benefit to using the IBM Retail framework, for IBM's anchor account planning
process?
A.Better coordination of IBM's resources across company divisions and brands
B.Provides better software pricing
C.Assists with complex deal negotiations
D.Assists with a better customer understanding
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following capabilities is a part of driving Operational Excellence?
A.Merge workforce and task management
B.Empower store associates with product knowledge
C.Embed intelligence into client interaction
D.All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following trends is most dramatically affecting retailers' use of media for marketing?
A.The internet is a rapidly growing online medium
B.There are more than 5500 magazines in which to advertise
C.The iPhone has emerged as a new communication platform
D.Consumers pay more attention to other consumers' opinions than retailer's ads
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-195
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-03

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NO.1 What is a QID identifier?
A. A mapping of a single device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
B. A mapping of a single event of an external device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
C. A mapping of multiple events of a single external device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
D. A mapping of a single event to multiple external devices to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which event search group contains default PCI searches?
A. Compliance
B. System Monitoring
C. Network Monitoring and Management
D. Authentication, Identity, and User Activity
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which steps are required to see hidden offenses in IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4 (QRadar)?
A. Contact the QRadar administrator to select Hidden Offenses and then choose the Show option
from
the Action menu.
B. From the Offenses page, navigate to All Offenses and open the Search menu. Select Edit Search
and
in the Search Parameters section, uncheckthe box Exclude Hidden Offenses.
C. From the Offenses page, navigate to the Offenses by Category, and click on Show Inactive
Categories
to display all hidden offenses. Click Hide Inactive Categories to hide them again.
D. Hidden Offenses are no longer associated with Offenses so a custom report and a search should
be
created that uses a search parameter where Associated with Offense equals False. To create a
custom
report, navigate to Reports and from the Actions menu select Create.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a prerequisite to create a report that contains at least one bar chart?
A. Have a color display and enable the JPanel
B. Have the role assigned to create (graphical) reports
C. Choose a search that has accumulated properties for the report
D. The search contained in the report must aggregate the results at least along one property
Answer: D

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NO.5 What does it mean if events are coming in as stored?
A. The events are not mapped to an existing QID map.
B. The events are being captured and parsed by a DSM.
C. The events are being captured but not being parsed by a DSM.
D. The events are being stored on disk and will be parsed by a DSM later.
Answer: C

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NO.6 How does a user search for events by high/low level category?
A. Actions menu > add a filter
B. Display drop-down > select categories
C. Add Filter icon > Category drop-down
D. View drop-down > select By Category drop-down
Answer: C

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NO.7 If a report author shares a report with another IBM Security QRadar V7 0 MR4 user, what type
of report access is granted to the other user.?
A. The other user can only access the report if they are an administrator.
B. The other user can use the original report as if it were created by that person.
C. The report output will be defined by the intersection of networkobjects and log sources of alluser
with
whom the report is shared.
D. The other user will not have any access to the original report definition but can do as they please
with
the report definition of the shared copy.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Offenses can be exported to which two file formats? (Choose two.)
A. RTF
B. XML
C. PDF
D. CSV
E. HTML
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 If the IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4 operator wants to graph the flow data in the Network
Activity tab,which three chart types can be presented? (Choose three.)
A. Pie Chart
B. Bar Chart
C. Line Chart
D. Area Chart
E. Gant Chart
F. Time Series Chart
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.10 How many default dashboards are included in IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the rule for using the Quick Filter to group terms using logical expressions such as AND,
OR, and NOT?
A. The syntax is not case sensitive.
B. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be upper case to be recognized as logical
expressions and not as search terms.
C. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be placed between square brackets to be
recognized as logical expressions and not as search terms.
D. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be lower case and placed between square
brackets to be recognized as logical expressions and not as search terms.
Answer: B

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NO.12 How can a report be set up with restricted user access?
A. Click Reports > Restrict Users
B. Click on Manage Groups and add the user to the Restricted Reports group
C. Select the appropriate users on the Report Editing wizard to access the reports
D. Click Admin > Users, edit each user, and create lists of report filters users are allowed to see
Answer: C

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NO.13 Using Quick Filter, what is a correct search term to find Blocked related activities in the
payload?
A. Blocked
B. "payload includes Blocked"
C. payload includes "Blocked"
D. (payload includes) Blocked
Answer: A

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NO.14 On the Offense summary page, which filter is executed when the Events icon or the link with
the
number of events is clicked?
A. An event filter with all events matching the source IP address
B. An event filter with all events matching the destination IP address
C. An event filter with the Custom Rule Engine rule(s) for the last 24 hours
D. An event filter with the Custom Rule Engine rule(s) for the duration of the offense
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which flow source is most often sampled?
A. vFlow
B. sFlow
C. QFlow
D. netflow
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C-TSCM52-64
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Procurement with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 At what level can you set quantity and value updating on a material type?
A. Plant
B. Company code
C. Valuation area
D. Procurement type
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your company manages stock of various advertising articles on a quantity and value basis. In
the
future, you want to analyze the value of these advertising articles.
Unfortunately, the articles have been created with different material types, material groups,
valuation classes, and in different number range intervals.
For this reason, you want to change the assignments.
Which of the following changes are possible, even if stock exists for the articles?
A. You create a new material group and then change the material group of the advertising articles
to the new material group.
B. You create a new material type and then change the material type of the advertising articles to
the new material type.
C. You create a new valuation class and then change the valuation class of the advertising articles
to the new valuation class.
D. You create a new number range interval and then change the material numbers of the
advertising articles to a number in the new number range interval.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which field attribute is given the highest priority in the field selection control?
A. Optional field
B. Required entry field
C. Suppress
D. Display
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which assignment can be made for the organizational object "purchasing organization"?
A. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple company codes
B. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple controlling areas
C. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple plants
D. Multiple purchasing groups can be assigned to a purchasing organization
Answer: C

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NO.5 You procure a material using the "Consignment" process. You want to ensure that purchase
requisitions with the "Consignment" item category are generated automatically for requirements
in
requirements planning.
Which of the following settings allows you to do this?
(Choose two.)
A. Enter "Consignment" as the special procurement type in the material master record.
B. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and enter it as a fixed source of
supply in the source list.
C. Activate the quota arrangement for the relevant material and create a quota arrangement item
using "Consignment" as the special procurement type.
D. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and select the "Regular Vendor"
indicator in the record.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 For a material without a material master record, a source of supply is to be found when a
purchase
requisition is created.
You request 10 pallets of copier paper belonging to material group 4711.
Which of the following sources of supply is proposed by the system?
A. Value contract with item category W (material group) for articles of material group 4711
B. Value contract for material 4711
C. SRM central contract with item category M (material unknown) for 100 tons of copier paper of
material group 4711
D. Quantity contract for over 500 pallets of copier paper for a stock material that belongs to
material group 4711
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is mandatory in a purchase order for a non-valuated material?
A. Set the indicator for goods receipt.
B. Select an account assignment category and assign an account assignment object.
C. Set the indicator for non-valuated goods receipts.
D. Set the indicator for invoice receipt.
Answer: B

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NO.8 From which stock type can goods issues to cost centers be posted?
A. Non-valuated blocked stock
B. Valuated blocked stock
C. Quality inspection stock
D. Unrestricted-use stock
Answer: D

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NO.9 What does an account group determine when vendor master records are created?
(Choose three.)
A. The number range in which a vendor master record must be created for this account group
B. The default setting of the info update indicator in purchase orders for vendors in this account
group
C. The field selection when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account group
D. The interval of the number assignment (internal or external)
E. The sequence of tab pages when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account
group
Answer:A,C,D

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NO.10 Before deliveries arrive from certain vendors, you want to be informed of the delivery date
and
quantity. To do this, you use a confirmation control key.
Which of the following settings can you define in a confirmation control key?
A. Only the confirmed quantity can be posted when the goods are received.
B. Confirmations must be transmitted electronically.
C. The goods receipt can be posted no earlier than the confirmed delivery date.
D. The full confirmed quantity must be entered in one posting in the system.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C-TADM53-70
Exam Name: SAP (System Administration (MS SQL DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 Concerning some (CCMS) monitoring terminology, which of the following statements
are correct?
(Choose three)
A. Each MTE can only be used in exactly one customer-defined monitor definition at a time.
B. Each monitoring attribute is assigned to exactly one monitoring object.
C. A monitoring attribute is also a monitoring tree element (MTE).
D. A monitoring object can have more than one assigned monitoring attribute.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 Which of the following options are available as global settings when setting the
'System change option'
in SAP Systems (transaction SE06)? (Choose two)
A. Not modifiable
B. An option to allow changes to Repository and client-independent customizing object
C. Original objects modifiable
D. Repaired objects modifiable
E. Modifiable
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 You want to use the Change and Transport System (CTS) to perform transports of non-
ABAP objects
into non-ABAP systems. Which configuration settings are necessary for this?
A. The transport domain controller system must be based on SAP NetWeaver AS 7.00 SP
Stack 12 or
higher.
B. You must use client-dependent transport routes for all systems in your transport domain.
C. You need to adjust certain tp parameters for the non-ABAP systems in question.
D. The CTS Deploy Web Service must be configured.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 How many clients can exist per AS ABAP-based SAP system?
A. The maximum numberis 1000 clients per SAP system
B. As many as you want
C. The number of clients per system is limited to 500
Answer: A

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NO.5 After establishing a three-system landscape transport environment for SAP systems
based on AS ABAP,
a developer has released a transport request in the DEV system. You now receive a mail
with the
transport request number from the developer and your job is to import this request into the
QAS system.
However, even after pressing the refresh button several times, the import queue of the QAS
systems
seems to be empty. Which of the following are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose
two)
A. The systems DEV and QAS belong to different transport groups.
B. The repository objects in this transport request belong to a package (formerly development
class) that
points to a transport layer, which in turn does not point to the QAS system.
C. You do not have the necessary authorizations to refresh the import queue of the QAS
system.
D. A virtual system exists in your transport landscape. Once you have a virtual system in your
transport
landscape the import buffers are empty.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which of the following statements regarding the functions offered by CCMS-based
monitoring are true?
(Choose two)
A. It is possible to monitor more than one SAP system by using the functions offered by
CCMS
monitoring.
B. Correctly configured threshold values to be used for monitoring purposes can be switched
by using
operation modes.
C. You need a special key (generated within SAP Solution Manager) to create your own
monitor
definitions in transaction RZ20.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 The customer has decided to implement a three system landscape for SAP ECC 6.0. A
lot of
customizing and development work must be done before the SAP landscape goes live.
Someone has
recommended using virtual systems in the beginning, instead of buying physical hardware.
Which
statements regarding virtual systems are true? (Choose three)
A. Virtual systems are used to save money in the beginning of a project. Another side-effect
is that the
productive SAP system can always be installed on the newest hardware technology.
B. Virtual systems are mainly used to simulate the correctness of transport routes.
C. The <SID> of the virtual system should be the same as the planned physical system.
D. Virtual systems are used in the transport environment like physical systems. Transport
buffers,
command files and data files are created.
E. Virtual systems in the SAP transport environment are only used together with hypervisor
technologies
from different third-party vendors.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 Which program, on the operating system level, performs and controls transports
between ABAP based
SAP-systems? Note that this program is controlled by your actions, for example in
transactions SE09
(Transport Organizer) and STMS (Transport Management System).
A. transport.exe
B. RDDIMPDP.bat
C. import.exe
D. RDDEXPPP.exe
E. tp.exe
Answer: E

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NO.9 Which of the following statements regarding the client concept and the client copy tools
in ABAP-based
SAP Systems (for example, SAP ECC) are true? (Choose three)
A. Application data can only be copied from one client to another, when all client-specific
customizing is
also copied.
B. Clients can be copied between SAP Systems of the same release.
C. Client-independent customizing is always automatically copied between clients.
D. User master records cannot be copied between clients.
E. Clients can be copied within a single SAP System.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.10 Which features are created automatically once you define a transport domain controller
in an
(ABAP-based) SAP landscape? (Choose four)
A. The transport profile for the transport control program tp is generated in the file system.
B. The TMS configuration is stored in the database and the file system.
C. The transport profile for the transport control program tp is generated in the database.
D. The user TMSADM is created.
E. The RFC destinations required for the TMS are generated.
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.11 Which of the following is true when creating new clients within an SAP System based
on AS ABAP (for
example, SAP ECC).?
A. Customizing and repository objects from a source client are automatically copied to the
new client
using the client copy tool.
B. Remote client copies generate large data files at the operating system level.
C. Log files indicating the success of a new client creation are stored in the home directory of
the user
initiating the copy.
D. The client transport tool can be used to transfer the same source client, simultaneously,
from one SAP
System to multiple other SAP systems in a single action.
E. The client copy can be accelerated by using several dialog work processes in parallel.
Answer: E

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NO.12 After the installation of an SAP ECC 6.0 three-system landscape, you plan to apply a
Support Package
stack to the Development system. Which statements concerning support packages for ABAP
based SAP
Systems are true? (Choose two)
A. To use the SPAM transaction, you need to configure the transport environment with STMS
in the client
000.
B. If there are modification adjustments necessary, transaction SPAM does not start the
import. You need
to perform these adjustments before importing the Support Package.
C. To use the SPAM, a valid transport landscape must have been created.
D. To use the SPAM transaction, you need to configure the transport environment with
transaction STMS
in the client 066 with user DDIC.
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 Which of the following statements concerning the Change and Transport System are
correct? (Choose two)
A. The transport directory is given by the parameter DIR_TRANS.
B. Small corrections on ABAP programs can be done safely in the production system.
C. Newly created (and empty) customizing change requests always have one or more tasks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 Which of the following terms are correlated to the (ABAP-based) SAP system
monitoring infrastructure?
(Choose two)
A. Alert Memory
B. Alert Server
C. Data Supplier
D. Monitoring Tree Element
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 Which of the following are repository objects in an AS ABAP-based SAP system?
(Choose two)
A. Programs
B. Buffer areas
C. Screens (Dynpros)
D. Client-independent customizing settings
Answer: A,C

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