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Exam Code: 000-417
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Information Analyzer V8.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 111 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which three steps must be performed to tell Information Analyzer where data is located? (Choose
three.)
A. Define a host.
B. Define a project.
C. Define a data store.
D. Define a data connection.
E. Define analysis settings.
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 Which analysis builds a complete set of all the column pairs between primary key columns and
remaining selected columns in selected tables?
A. column analysis
B. foreign key analysis
C. cross table analysis
D. primary key analysis
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are two valid ways of connecting AuditStage to a database? (Choose two.)
A. JDBC
B. federation
C. Information Analyzer
D. direct database connection
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Given a review of a new column analysis, which review processes must be completed in sequence?
A. domain analysis, then format analysis
B. format analysis, then properties analysis
C. domain analysis, then rebuild inferences
D. properties analysis, then classification analysis
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are two architectural components of AuditStage? (Choose two.)
A. client interface
B. parallel execution engine
C. internal or external database
D. common services connector
Answer: AC

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NO.6 Which method should be used to estimate disk space to store frequency distributions for a given
column based on the volume of data to be profiled?
A. Multiply the number of distinct values by 2000.
B. Multiply the total number of columns and the total number of rows.
C. Multiply the number of rows by the sum of the column length and the maximum column format size
plus 150.
D. Multiply the number of rows by the sum of the column length and the maximum number of formats plus
150.
Answer: C

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NO.7 For a data quality assessment project, which three roles are involved throughout the assessment?
(Choose three.)
A. data modeler
B. data analyst
C. ETL developer
D. business analyst
E. business subject matter expert
Answer: BDE

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NO.8 You are installing Information Analyzer and plan to use DB2 as the analysis database, which statement
is true?
A. The analysis database is automatically created at installation.
B. You must install the analysis database after you install the suite.
C. The analysis database DSN is automatically created at installation.
D. You must configure the analysis database before you install the suite.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You have an Information Analyzer installation in an environment where multiple servers and multiple
operating systems are available.
Which two configurations are valid? (Choose two.)
A. all layers on one RedHat Linux server
B. Domain and Repository layers on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on one AIX UNIX server
C. Domain and Repository layers on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on another RedHat Linux
server
D. Domain layer on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on one AIX UNIX server, Repository layer on
another AIX UNIX server
Answer: AC

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NO.10 Which three steps must be completed to make a data source available for analysis in Information
Analyzer? (Choose three.)
A. Define a host computer.
B. Import the source metadata.
C. Import a sample set of source records.
D. Define an ODBC connection to the data source.
E. Define an ODBC connection to the IADB repository.
Answer: ABD

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NO.11 What must be installed prior to AuditStage?
A. .NET Framework
B. Information Server
C. Java Run-time Environment
D. Microsoft Data Access Components
Answer: D

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NO.12 A company has embarked on the implementation of a centralized data warehouse.
Data Quality Assessment will be addressed at which two points in the implementation project? (Choose
two.)
A. periodically during post-implementation
B. during the initial project plan development
C. during the analysis phase before actual design begins
D. during acceptance testing conducted after construction but before the warehouse is turned over for use
Answer: CD

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NO.13 Which two connectors are automatically available when defining a data source to Information Analyzer?
(Choose two.)
A. ODBCConnector
B. JDBCConnector
C. DataStageConnector
D. WebSphereMQConnector
Answer: AD

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NO.14 Which three methods can be used to review the results of domain analysis? (Choose three.)
A. Examine each value individually.
B. Specify a range to determine the validity of the values.
C. Compare all of the values to the values in a reference table.
D. Specify a conditional test to determine the validity of the values.
E. Create an automated script to check the validity of values based on business requirements.
Answer: ABC

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NO.15 Which two statements are true when importing metadata describing a data source? (Choose two.)
A. Column definitions can be changed by the user during import.
B. Metadata can be discovered by using the Identify Next Level function.
C. Discovered metadata is automatically imported into the analysis database.
D. Metadata for table and column definitions can be discovered using the Identify All Levels function.
Answer: BD

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NO.16 Which two roles must be assigned to a user to complete the configuration of Information Analyzer?
(Choose two.)
A. data administrator
B. project administrator
C. database administrator
D. production administrator
Answer: AB

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NO.17 Which statement is true with regards to publishing analysis results?
A. Reference tables can be created then published and accessed using QualityStage.
B. Categories can be created then published and accessed using Business Glossary.
C. The accepted primary and foreign keys can be published then accessed using DataStage.
D. The candidate primary and foreign keys can be published then accessed using Business Glossary.
Answer: C

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NO.18 A company has determined a need for profiling a centralized data warehouse for business intelligence
reporting.
During the initial client discovery session, which three initial questions should be addressed? (Choose
three.)
A. Which data marts are generated?
B. Which data sources are contributors?
C. Which underlying issues are suspected?
D. Which users are subject matter experts?
E. Which are the referential integrity violations?
Answer: BCD

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NO.19 When planning a data quality assessment project, application owners have expressed reluctance to
provide real-time access to their source systems using Information Analyzer.
Which two concepts should be discussed and understood by the assessment team? (Choose two.)
A. data standardization needed
B. data transformation rules needed
C. timeliness of data and its effect on structural metadata
D. timeliness of data and its effect on data assessment results
Answer: CD

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NO.20 Which architectural component applies to both Information Analyzer and AuditStage?
A. XMeta
B. domain
C. client interface
D. parallel engine
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-646
Exam Name: IBM (Rational Manual Tester)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 A tester deletes a statement from the Reuse view. How does Rational Manual Tester update scripts that
reference the statement?
A.The statements are removed from the Reuse view and removed from all test scripts that reference them.
B.The statements are removed from the Reuse view, and made local in all the test scripts that reference
them.
C.The statements are removed from the Reuse view and flagged as removed in the scripts that reference
them.
D.The Statements are removed from the Reuse view but the statements are still referenced in the scripts
in which they were used.
Answer:D

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NO.2 When executing a test, what does a small brown box indicate?
A.Manual Tester execution stopped.
B.The executing line is a Verification Point.
C.Paste Data or Compare Data is available to the tester.
D.A screenshot can be associated with this Verification Point.
Answer:C

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NO.3 A tester needs to create tests that include many application screenshots, most of which already exist in
files from creating the user manuals. What is the easiest way to incorporate these into the tests?
A.open the user manuals; select and copy each screenshot image; paste images into the RMT test
B.using the RMT Capture Image feature, choose the Graphic File on Disk option; browse to the file
location
C.open the user manuals; using the RMT Capture Image feature, choose the Region on the Screen
option; select each screenshot
D.copy the screenshot files into the same folder as the RMT test; use the RMT Capture Image feature to
add each image into the RMT test
Answer:B

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NO.4 When using the Export Formatter to process data according to your needs, what do you modify?
A.getDestinationFile() and run()
B.formatAndExportEvent () and run()
C.setDestinationFile and HtmlFormatter
D.formatAndExportEvent () and getDestinationFile()
Answer:B

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NO.5 A client's tests are written in Microsoft Word, with each step a row in a table. Which statement is true
about importing these tests into RMT?
A.The import automatically preserves the table formatting.
B.The client must check the Preserve Formatting checkbox for RMT to keep the table formatting.
C.They have an RMT test with listed steps because RMT does not support Microsoft Word tables.
D.Each row becomes a step, not part of a table (but they can copy-paste the table into a single step within
the RMT test).
Answer:D

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Exam Code: 000-839
Exam Name: IBM (Rational Unified Process v7.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which two concepts guide iterative development? (Choose two.)
A.early completion of simple features, to show progress to the customer
B.informal plans, allowing features to be moved to future iterations
C.early baselining of architecture, allowing stability in planning, content and organization
D.scope validation by stakeholders, to account for their needs
Correct:C D

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about an Executable Architecture? (Choose two.)
A.It is a disposable prototype of the application.
B.It is a simulation of the executing system.
C.It is a validation (testable) of the architecture.
D.It is the baseline for the rest of development.
Correct:C D

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NO.3 What are three characteristics of a task? (Choose three.)
A.is work a role performs
B.occurs once in an iteration
C.has granularity of a few hours to a few days
D.usually affects only one or a small number of work products
Correct:A C D

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NO.4 Why does the risk-time profile decline more rapidly for iterative development than waterfall
development? (Choose two.)
A.Iterative development exposes design flaws and enables resolution earlier in the lifecycle.
B.With iterative development, customer satisfaction is maintained by early, incremental deliveries of
capability.
C.In iterative development, the software architecture can be revised in any iteration to support new
features and overcome performance problems.
D.Iterative development allows key, non-functional requirements (i.e. performance, fault tolerance and
maintainability) to be addressed early in development.
Correct:A D

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NO.5 What relationship(s) can a work product have to a task?
A.input only
B.output only
C.input and output
D.optional input, mandatory input, and output
Correct:D

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about iterations? (Choose two.)
A.Working software is always delivered to the customer.
B.An iterations always has a plan and evaluation criteria.
C.An iteration is a mini project with a plan, deliverables and assessment.
D.There are always multiple iterations in each phase.
Correct:B C

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NO.7 Which is a fine-grained plan?
A.Software Development Plan
B.Business Case
C.Iteration Plan
D.Risk Management Plan
Correct:C

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NO.8 In planning for iterative development, the Project Plan is referred to as a _____.
A.roadmap
B.fine-grained plan
C.detailed plan
D.risk management tool
Correct:A

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NO.9 Which is part of the evaluation criteria for successful completion of the Elaboration phase?
A.A final set of requirements is agreed upon.
B.All detailed design documents are reviewed.
C.The architecture is stable.
D.Less than 50% of project budget is expended.
Correct:C

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NO.10 In the Construction phase, what are the two areas of focus of the Iteration Plan? (Choose two.)
A.development efficiency
B.project scoping
C.architectural risks
D.product quality
Correct:A D

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NO.11 How does an iterative approach help with resource and cost control?
A.It allows the Project Manager to control allocation of resources by phase. Artifacts evolve as required by
each phase and there is increased precision of cost estimates from phase to phase.
B.It allows the Project Manager to make budgetary requests with each iteration. These requests are
based on the expansion of project scope as requested by the customer.
C.It allows iterations to be planned in advance and in detail for all phases. It helps establish costs and a
profile of resource usage can be generated in advance for the entire project.
D.It allows iterations to be de-scoped as required, at the direction of the Project Manager. It allows better
management of costs as features can be moved to later iterations when resources are available.
Correct:A

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NO.12 What are two functions of a Status Assessment? (Choose two.)
A.manages expectations
B.provides a mechanism for resolving management issues
C.rates the overall project quality
D.resolves risk items
Correct:A B

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NO.13 What are three types of work products? (Choose three.)
A.artifact
B.deliverable
C.milestone
D.outcome
Correct:A B D

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NO.14 Which three work products belong in the Project Management discipline? (Choose three.)
A.Risk Management Plan
B.Business Case
C.Test Evaluation Summary Report
D.Project Plan
Correct:A B D

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NO.15 In RUP, what does the Software Development Plan contain?
A.Iteration Plan
B.Requirements Management Plan, Master Validation Plan, Quality Test Plan, and Risk Management
Plan
C.Problem Resolution Plan, Product Acceptance Plan, Measurement Plan, Risk Management Plan, and
Quality Assurance Plan
D.Requirements Management Plan, Product Metrics Plan, and Software Test Assurance Plan
Correct:C

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NO.16 What is a typical breakdown of total project effort across the phases?
A.Inception 20% Elaboration 50% Construction 20% Transition 10%
B.Inception 5%, Elaboration 20%, Construction 45%, Transition 30%
C.Inception 10% Elaboration 10% Construction 70% Transition 10%
D.Inception 5% Elaboration 20% Construction 65% Transition 10%
Correct:D

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NO.17 Which two factors determine the duration of an iteration? (Choose two.)
A.the size of the project
B.the priority set by the customer on particular features
C.the requirement for a minimum of six iterations in a project
D.the level of automation used to manage code, distribute information and perform testing
Correct:A D

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NO.18 The Iteration Plan belongs to _____.
A.the Project Management domain and the Specification work product kind
B.the Assessment domain and the Project Management work product kind
C.the Planning domain and the Project Management work product kind
D.the Project Management domain and the Plan work product kind
Correct:D

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NO.19 What is the purpose of the Project Plan?
A.to assess the feasibility of the project
B.to establish project staffing
C.to describe the phases and major milestones of the project
D.to provide a sound rationale for project funding
Correct:C

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NO.20 Which two model elements can be linked to descriptors? (Choose two.)
A.Phase
B.Task
C.Activity
D.Role
Correct:B D

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Exam Code: 1Y0-118
Exam Name: Citrix (Citrix WinFrame 1.8 Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 The default client window properties for an application set are set within Program Neighborhood by:
A.Selecting the Farm menu option, choosing properties then clicking the change button within the
Windows Size section.
B.Selecting the Settings menu option, choosing preferences then selecting the
appropriate properties.
C.Selecting the Settings on the Tools menu option, choosing settings, then change the settings under
Windows Size.
D.Selecting the Default Option tab from the farm's Properties option, then change the settings under
Window Size.
Answer: D

Citrix   1Y0-118 test answers   1Y0-118

NO.2 Which statement is true about the logon process?
A.A default policy is loaded prior to the user profile being loaded.
B.A private home directory is created of one has not been created for the user.
C.When a user logs on, the user's profile is loaded first and then the system policy is downloaded.
D.When a user logs on, the user's system policy is downloaded first followed by the user's profile.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the recommended minimum free disk space required to install WinFrame?
A.100 MB
B.150 MB
C.300 MB
D.350 MB
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Y0-A25
Exam Name: Citrix (Engineering a Citrix Virtualization Solution Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 87 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Scenario: Engineering users within the Nether Tech environment require access to the different
XenApp published applications from multiple devices in order to execute simu-lations for their lab
exercises. Applications are published in a single XenApp farm. Remote access into the environment has
NOT been configured since the Engineering team works mostly internally.
A Citrix Engineer has configured the XenApp farm to point to a centralized license server which has 100
per user/device licenses.
How will the XenDesktop licenses be checked out from the license server when users access multiple
XenApp published applications from multiple devices in this environment?
A. 1 license for each user
B. 1 license for each device
C. 1 concurrent user license
D. 1 license for each user and each device
Answer: A

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NO.2 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer added a new XenDesktop site into the same Web Interface site that
currently provides access to resources in the XenApp farm. When the engineer began testing access to
virtual desktops in the environment, the engineer noticed that the Citrix Desktop Viewer window and
toolbar for Citrix Receiver did NOT appear.
To enable the Citrix Desktop Viewer, the engineer should add ShowDesktopViewer=On in the _________
file. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. CONFIG.XML
B. DEFAULT.ICA
C. WEB.CONFIG
D. WEBINTERFACE.CONF
Answer: D

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NO.3 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is configuring a new XenApp 6.5 farm in order to provide the Sales
department with access to a new CRM application. There are 400 users who will be accessing the
application, and the application load testing shows 512 MB of RAM utilization for each user during peak
time. XenApp will be installed on virtual machines, and the virtual machines will be hosted on XenServer
hosts.
All three of the XenServer hosts have the following hardware specifications:
1. Dual 6 core CPU

NO.4 Scenario: In order to minimize compatibility issues in the Nether Tech XenApp farm and XenDesktop
site, a Citrix Engineer implemented a policy that set the printer driver option to "Use Universal Printing
Only." This policy is assigned to all users. The engineer is in the process of importing a new network
printer server and assigning session printers for users in the XenDesktop site only. Upon initial testing, the
engineer noticed that none of the assigned session printers were being created in the users' sessions.
What should the engineer do to solve this issue?
A. Stage the printer drivers on the XenApp servers.
B. Stage the printer drivers on the XenDesktop images.
C. Modify the policy to allow the installation of native printer drivers.
D. Modify the policy to enable the Direct Connections to printer servers setting.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Scenario: Nether Tech recently upgraded to XenDesktop 5.5 and implemented a new VoIP system.
Virtual desktops have been integrated with the VoIP system. RTA (Real-time Audio) over UDP has also
been configured.
Which two steps should a Citrix Engineer take to optimize RTA/UDP traffic in the XenDesktop
implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Create a Citrix User policy.
B. Create a Citrix Computer policy.
C. Enable Multi-Stream in the policy.
D. Increase overall session bandwidth limit.
E. Set the audio redirection bandwidth limit in the policy.
Answer: B, C

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NO.6 Scenario: Nether Tech's corporate policy requires that passwords are NOT requested for XenApp
passthrough connections, except for those that pertain to members of the Nursing Users group. Nurses
connect to XenApp servers hosting applications in the Nurses Worker Group.
Click the Exhibit button to view a list of the policies configured in the environment.
An engineer needs to prioritize the three policies so that only members of the Nurses group are prompted
for passwords when they connect to their XenApp resources.
What is the correct order of prioritization for the policies from lowest to highest?
A. Unfiltered, Nurses, Corporate Users
B. Corporate Users, Nurses, Unfiltered
C. Unfiltered, Corporate Users, Nurses
D. Nurses, Unfiltered, Corporate Users
Answer: D

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NO.7 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is assigned to manage a datacenter environment that consists of
XenServer, Provisioning Services, XenDesktop, and XenApp. Provisioning Services is used to stream
vDisks to XenDesktop and XenApp images. The current environment consists of four physical servers
running XenServer and a single physical server running Provisioning Services Currently, there are 750
users in the environment. Extensive testing has shown that each XenServer host can support XenApp
and XenDesktop workloads for up to 200 users, and the Provisioning Services server can stream images
to 4000 virtual machines. Management has just informed the engineer that a recent acquisition is going to
add 1200 users to the environment. Management also desires that the datacenter be fully redundant so
that the loss of one physical server does NOT impact business continuity.
At minimum, the engineer will need to add __________ new XenServer hosts and __________ new
Provisioning Services servers to support the new workload and make the environment redundant.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 6, 0
B. 6, 1
C. 7, 0
D. 7, 1
E. 8, 0
F. 8, 1
Answer: D

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NO.8 Scenario: In order to complete the rollout of a new XenApp farm, a Citrix Engineer is required to set a
policy to allow all client printers to auto-create for the domain group called Accounting Users. Their
current unfiltered Citrix policy is configured to only auto-create the client's default printer. The engineer
must also ensure that any changes made will NOT affect other users in the farm.
All the XenApp servers are in a single worker group.
Which three actions must the engineer take to allow the Accounting Users group to receive all of their
printers? (Choose three.)
A. Increase the policy priority.
B. Decrease the policy priority.
C. Assign the policy to the Accounting User group.
D. Assign the policy to the existing XenApp Worker group.
E. Create a User policy and set the policy to allow the autocreation of all client printers.
F. Create a Computer policy and set the policy to allow the autocreation of all client printers.
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.9 Scenario: An engineer has been instructed to implement a new XenApp farm. The IT Manager at Nether
Tech wants idle sessions for server hosted applications to be disconnected after two hours and idle
sessions for XenApp server hosted desktops to be disconnected after eight hours. There is a separate
domain group policy which disconnects idle sessions after four hours.
The XenApp servers hosting the server hosted desktops are in a worker group named Apps. The XenApp
servers hosting the server hosted desktop are in a worker group named Desktops. Several Computer
policies are configured in the environment.
Click the Exhibit button to view the list of configured Computer policies.
Users are complaining that their idle sessions are disconnected after four hours.
What must the engineer do to meet the requirements stated in the environment?
A. Remove the Domain Group Policy.
B. Disable Domain Group Policy Inheritance.
C. Change the Domain Group Policy to 8 hours.
D. Change the Domain Group Policy to 2 hours.
Answer: B

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NO.10 96 GB of RAM

NO.11 300 GB SAN storage
The Citrix Engineer needs to ensure that users can access their XenApp resources in the event of a
server hardware failure.
Based on Citrix Best Practices, what would be the recommended configuration?
A. Create a pool with three hosts.
B. Create three pools with one host each.
C. Create a pool with two hosts and enable HA.
D. Create a pool with three hosts and enable HA.
Answer: D

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2.Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to set up logging to monitor a Workload Balancing related issue in a
XenServer implementation. The engineer wants to capture maximum detail about this issue before
reporting it to Citrix Technical Support.
To increase the level of detail that will be captured in the log file, the engineer should _________ and
__________. (Choose the two correct options to complete the sentence.)
A. open wlb.conf in a text editor
B. open logfile.log in a text editor
C. open auditlog.out in a text editor
D. modify the configuration options
E. enable logging for a specific trace
Answer: A, E

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3.Scenario: Nether Tech has a XenDesktop farm with Windows 7 desktops. Users are accessing their
virtual desktops from different bandwidth and latency connection types.
Which setting should the engineer configure in a Citrix User policy in order to optimize moving images?
A. Enable Adaptive Display. Disable Progressive Display.
B. Disable Adaptive Display. Disable Progressive Display.
C. Enable Adaptive Display. Enable Progressive Display with Low Compression.
D. Disable Adaptive Display. Enable Progressive Display with Low Compression.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Scenario: Nether Tech's head office, which has over 400 employees, is located in the city center of
Amsterdam, where the majority of the employees rely on public transport to travel to and from the office.
During the winter, a significant amount of disruption is caused when staff cannot get into the office. Nether
Tech wants to ensure that staff can connect to their corporate desktops from their home computers or
corporate issued laptops during times of disruption.
Nether Tech has a XenApp farm already. This farm can be accessed externally and all staff members
have access. Nether Tech can only spare two virtual servers to facilitate a solution that will allow
employees to access their own corporate physical desktops. Any solution must allow employees to work
directly with their own corporate physical desktops.
Which solution will best suit Nether Tech's needs?
A. Deploy two XenApp servers to the existing farm and publish the RDP client.
B. Deploy two XenApp servers to the existing farm and publish a hosted desktop for all users.
C. Deploy two desktop controllers to the existing farm and use XenDesktop to publish each user's
desktop.
D. Deploy two desktop controllers servers to the existing farm and use XenApp to publish each user's
desktop.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Scenario: The IT Manager at Nether Tech has decided that users will access the XenDesktop site and
XenApp farm using a single Web Interface site. A Citrix Engineer created and configured the site for users
to access both XenDesktop and XenApp resources. When they initiate their first logon to Web Interface,
users only receive their published applications from XenApp.
The zone data collector for the XenApp farm is xa1.cch.local. The controller for the XenDesktop site is
xd1.cch.local. The XML port for both servers is 80.
Click the Exhibit button to view the farm configuration for the Web Interface site.
Which change must the engineer make in order for users to see resources from the XenApp farm and
XenDesktop site?
A. List the xd1.cch.local server as the first server.
B. Move xd1.cch.local into a XenApp Services site.
C. Set the XML transport to HTTPS for XenDesktop.
D. Move xd1.cch.local into a separate Web Interface farm.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Scenario: Nether Tech is reviewing its disaster recovery plan. Currently, users access pooled virtual
desktops, and they use office productivity applications from within their desktop sessions. Business
critical applications are hosted using XenApp Advanced Edition and are accessible from within the pooled
desktops.
The XenServer hosting infrastructure for Nether Tech's disaster recovery site has the ability to support
50% CPU and memory capacity compared to the primary datacenter in the event of a failover. All servers
in the primary datacenter are currently averaging 70-80% CPU and memory utilization.
Which delivery method would allow business critical applications to remain available to all users should a
disaster occur?
A. Pooled Desktops
B. Offline Applications
C. Assigned Desktops
D. Hosted applications
Answer: D

Citrix   1Y0-A25   1Y0-A25 certification   1Y0-A25

NO.15 Scenario: As part of the designs for the XenDesktop site and XenApp farm at Nether Tech, a Citrix
Engineer is instructed to ensure that all auto-created printers use the Citrix Universal Printer Driver. As the
deployment phase begins, a home user is experiencing issues printing to a locally attached printer. When
print jobs are sent to the printer, the pages print, but only with strange characters on them.
To resolve the user s printing issue, the engineer should create a Citrix User policy and __________.
(Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. set a session printer to the user's default printer
B. set the client printer names to legacy printer names
C. set the client printer names to standard printer names
D. set PCL5c driver at the top of the Universal driver preference list
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 156-515
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert Plus NGX)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Assume you have a rule allowing HTTP traffic, on port 80, to a specific Web server in a Demilitarized
Zone (DMZ). If
an external host port scans the Web server's IP address, what information will be revealed?
A. Nothing; the NGX Security Server automatically block all port scans.
B. All ports are open on the Security Server.
C. All ports are open on the Web server.
D. The Web server's file structure is revealed.
E. Port 80 is open on the Web server.
Answer: E

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NO.2 Which file provides the data for the host_table output, and is responsible for keeping a record of all
internal IPs
passing through the internal interfaces of a restricted hosts licensed Security Gateway?
A. hosts.h
B. external.if
C. hosts
D. fwd.h
E. fwconn.h
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr. Watson error?
A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A

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NO.4 fw monitor packets are collected from the kernel in a buffer. What happens if the buffer becomes full?
A. The information in the buffer is saved and packet capture continues, with new data stored in the buffer.
B. Older packet information is dropped as new packet information is added.
C. Packet capture stops.
D. All packets in it are deleted, and the buffer begins filling from the beginning.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The list below provides all the actions Check Point recommends to troubleshoot a problem with an
NGX product.
A.List Possible Causes
B.Identify the Problem
C.Collect Related Information
D.Consult Various Reference Sources
E.Test Causes Individually and Logically
Select the answer that shows the order of the recommended actions that make up Check Point's
troubleshooting
guidelines?
A. B, C, A, E, D
B. A, E, B, D, C
C. A, B, C, D, E
D. B, A, D, E, C
E. D, B, A, C, E
Answer: A

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NO.6 VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement is true for route based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required
Answer: E

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NO.8 You modified the *def file on your Security Gateway, but the changes were not applied. Why?
A. There is more than one *.def file on the Gateway.
B. You did not have the proper authority.
C. *.def files must be modified on the SmartCenter Server.
D. The *.def file on the Gateway is read-only.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to view?
A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis
Answer: D

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NO.10 NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before allowing it access
to the
protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic load passing
through a
Security Gateway.
Answer: C

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Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 You want to verify that your Check Point cluster is working correctly. Which command line tool can you
use?
A. cphaconf state
B. cphaprob state
C. cphainfo-s
D. cphastart -status
Answer: B

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NO.2 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by
the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following commands can be used to stop Management portal services?
A. fw stopportal
B. cpportalstop
C. cpstop / portal
D. smartportalstop
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify automatic
uploads of reports to a central FTP server?
A. Smart Dashboard Log Consolidator
B. Security Management Server
C. Smart Reporter Database
D. Smart Reporter
Answer: D

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NO.5 John is configuring a new R71 Gateway cluster but he can not configure the cluster as Third Party IP
Clustering because this option is not available in Gateway Cluster Properties: What's happening?
A. John is not using third party hardware as IP Clustering is part of Check Point's IP Appliance B .Third
Party Clustering is not available for R71 Security Gateways.
B. ClusterXL needs to be unselected to permit 3rd party clustering configuration.
C. John has an invalid ClusterXL license.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You need to publish SecurePlatform routes using the ospf routing protocol. What is the correct
command structure, once entering the route command, to implement ospf successfully?
A. Run cpconfig utility to enable ospf routing
B. ip route ospf
ospf network1
ospf network2
C. Enable
Configure terminal
Router ospf [id]
Network [network] [wildmask] area [id]
D. Use DBedit utility to either the objects_5_0.c file
Answer: C

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NO.7 When you check Web Server in a host-node object, what happens to the host?
A. The Web server daemon is enabled on the host.
B. More granular controls are added to the host, in addition to Web Intelligence tab settings.
C. You can specify allowed ports in the Web server's node-object properties. You then do not need to list
all allowed ports in the Rule Base.
D. IPS Web Intelligence is enabled to check on the host.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which external user authentication protocols are supported in SSL VPN?
A. LDAP, Active Directory, SecurID
B. DAP, SecurID, Check Point Password, OS Password, RADIUS, TACACS
C. LDAP, RADIUS, Active Directory, SecurID
D. LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID
Answer: B

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NO.9 ________is a proprietary Check Point protocol. it is the basis for Check Point ClusterXL inter-module
communication.
A. RDP
B. CCP
C. CKPP
D. HA OPCODE
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which procedure creates a new administrator in SmartWorkflow?
A. Run cpconfig, supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
B. In SmartDashboard, click SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow and the Enable SmartWorkflow
wizard will start. Supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions
when prompted.
C. On the Provider-1 primary MDS, run cpconfig, supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name,
Access Applications and Permissions.
D. In SmartDashboard, click Users and Administrators right click Administrators / New Administrator and
supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is a task of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?
A. Add events to the events database.
B. Look for patterns according to the installed Event Policy.
C. Assign a severity level to an event
D. Display the received events.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Check point Clustering protocol, works on:
A. UDP 8116
B. UDP 500
C. TCP 8116
D. TCP 19864
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following statements about the Port Scanning feature of IPS is TRUE?
A. The default scan detection is when more than 500 open inactive ports are open for a period of 120
seconds.
B. The Port Scanning feature actively blocks the scanning, and sends an alert to SmartView Monitor.
C. Port Scanning does not block scanning; it detects port scans with one of three levels of detection
sensitivity.
D. When a port scan is detected, only a log is issued, never an alert.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What command will allow you to disable sync on a cluster firewall member?
A. fw ctl setsync 0
B. fw ctl sysnstat stop
C. fw ctl sysnstat off
D. fw ctl setsyns off
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Answer: C

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NO.16 Organizations are sometimes faced with the need to locate cluster members in different geographic
locations that are distant from each other. A typical example is replicated data centers whose location is
widely separated for disaster recovery purposes.
What are the restrictions of this solution?
A. There are no restrictions.
B. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 150 ms latency
(ITU Standard G.114).
C. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100 ms latency.
D. There are two restrictions: 1. The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100ms
latency and no more than 5% packet loss. 2. The synchronization network may only include switches and
hubs.
Answer: D

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NO.17 You are MegaCorp Security Administrator. This company uses a firewall cluster, consisting of two
cluster members. The cluster generally works well but one day you find that the cluster is behaving
strangely. You assume that there is a connectivity problem with the cluster synchronization cluster link
(cross-over cable).
Which of the following commands is the best for testing the connectivity of the crossover cable?
A. telnet <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
B. arping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
C. ifconfig a
D. Ping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
Answer: B

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NO.18 How does a cluster member take over the VIP after a failover event?
A. Ping the sync interface
B. if list -renew
C. Broadcast storm
D. Gratuitous ARP
Answer: D

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NO.19 You are establishing a ClusterXL environment, with the following topology: External interfaces
192.168.10.1 and 192.168.10.2 connect to a VLAN switch. The upstream router connects to the same
VLAN switch. Internal interfaces 172.16 10.1 and 172.16.10.2 connect to a hub. 10.10.10.0 is the
synchronization network. The Security Management Server is located on the internal network with IP
172.16.10.3. What is the problem with this configuration?
A. There is an IP address conflict
B. The Security Management Server must be in the dedicated synchronization network, not the internal
network.
C. The Cluster interface names must be identical across all cluster members.
D. Cluster members cannot use the VLAN switch. They must use hubs.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Refer to Exhibit:
Match the ClusterXL Modes with their configurations
A. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
B. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
C. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
D. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Answer: C

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