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2014年1月14日星期二

Latest EMC E20-005 of exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: E20-005
Exam Name: EMC (Backup Recovery Systems and Architecture Exam)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-14

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NO.1 What is the primary reason for having disaster recovery backups?
A. To restore data from an alternate site due to data loss at a primary site
B. To restore data when data loss or logical corruptions occur during routine processing
C. To restore data that was archived for regulatory compliance
D. To restore data when data loss occurs due to minor hardware component failures
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the role of the storage node in a client/server backup architecture?
A. Writes data to a backup device
B. Gathers data to be backed up
C. Manages the backup operation
D. Writes metadata to the backup catalog
Answer: A

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NO.3 What terminology is used to describe grouping several physical drives into one logical drive?
A. Concatenation
B. Partitioning
C. Formatting
D. Grouping
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the process of moving data from one storage medium to another?
A. Cloning
B. Replication
C. Staging
D. Twinning
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer is moving data from a backup disk to tape, which will later will be stored offsite.
What is this process called?
A. Cloning
B. Staging
C. Aging
D. Mirroring
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the interval of time between the creation and expiration of the backup called?
A. Retention period
B. Recovery point objective (RPO)
C. Recovery time objective (RTO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which type of backup only copies the files that have changed since the last full backup.?
A. Cumulative
B. Full
C. Incremental
D. Synthetic full
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which software component of a backup application sends media metadata to the backup server?
A. Storage node
B. Client
C. NetWorker Management Console
D. Application server
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which type of backup should be used to create a backup copy offline without disrupting I/O operations
on a production volume?
A. Cumulative backup
B. Incremental backup
C. Full backup
D. Synthetic full backup
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are planning the staging policy for disk-to-offsite tape backup media. In addition to available disk
space, which factor is most significant when determining how long to keep the backup data on disk?
A. Length of time when most restore requests are expected to occur
B. Location of offsite storage
C. Cost of shipping and storing tapes
D. Tape capacity
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which disk connectivity option supports the highest data transfer rate?
A. SATA
B. SCSI
C. IDE
D. ATA
Answer: A

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NO.12 What are the components of a Logical Volume Manager (LVM)?
A. Physical volumes, volume groups, logical volumes
B. Physical groups, volume groups, logical volumes
C. Physical groups, volume groups, logical groups
D. Physical blocks, volume groups, logical groups
Answer: A

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NO.13 A full backup of a file system is performed once a week on Saturday and cumulative backups are
performed on all other days. Backups start at 20:00 with a two-hour window. Data on the file system
changes every day.
How many backups are required to perform a full system restore as of Friday morning?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 1
D. 7
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is recovery point objective?
A. Maximum allowable time to fully recover an application
B. Actual time that it takes to recover all data
C. Amount of data loss that is acceptable by the business
D. Length of time that backups are kept for recovery purposes
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is an example of a PCI connection?
A. Parallel interface between a disk and the controller card
B. Interconnection between a CPU and network card
C. Serial connection between a disk and the controller card
D. Interconnection between a tape drive and a computer
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is a benefit of deploying a separate storage node in the backup environment?
A. Reduced number of backups
B. Increased media utilization
C. Improved security and access control
D. Consolidate backup servers
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is the fault tolerance of a RAID 5 array, where n is the number of disks in the array?
A. 1
B. n-1
C. 2
D. n-2
Answer: A

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NO.18 A business has a recovery point objective (RPO) of nine hours. What does this RPO mean in the event
of a disaster?
A. No more than nine hours of production data can be lost
B. Restore from backup must occur within nine hours
C. Production must be resumed within nine hours
D. A backup copy of the production data must be obtained within nine hours
Answer: A

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NO.19 A customer has a requirement to restore operations within two hours after a disaster.
What is this time period called?
A. Recovery time objective (RTO)
B. Retention period
C. Recovery point objective (RPO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which statement defines retention period?
A. Amount of time available for restoring a particular version of a backup dataset
B. Amount of time available for overwriting a volume containing backups
C. Period of time in which a backup must be restored
D. Amount of time allocated for full system recovery
Answer: A

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EMC certification E20-895 the latest exam questions and answers

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Exam Code: E20-895
Exam Name: EMC (Backup Recovery - Avamar Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers)
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Total Q&A: 106 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-14

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NO.1 An existing EMC Avamar customer has noticed that garbage collection is not running properly on a
daily basis. The garbage collection logs show the process failing with the MSG_ERR_FULL error each
time it attempts to run. The Avamar Administrator reports the server capacity as 96%.What could be
causing garbage collection to fail?
A. GSAN capacity is over 85%
B. Operating system capacity is over 85%
C. Operating system capacity is over 65%
D. Avamar server has reached the health check limit
Answer: B

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NO.2 An EMC Avamar customer is running a backup that is being written to a Data Domain system. The
Data Domain cleaning schedule runs at 8 A.M. on Tuesday mornings. Avamar maintenance runs daily at
6 A.M. A backup has completed successfully; however, it is no longer needed. The customer manually
deletes the backup on Wednesday afternoon using the Avamar Administrator.
When is the space reclaimed on the Data Domain system?
A. At the next Data Domain file system cleaning
B. Immediately on the Data Domain system
C. At the next scheduled Avamar garbage collection
D. When manually deleted from the Data Domain system
Answer: A

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NO.3 An EMC customer has a three-node cluster with the Avamar Windows client installed. Each node has
the Avamar Exchange 2007 plug-in installed. What should be done to avoid backing up the same data
multiple times within a backup window?
A. Exclude virtual node file systems from the physical node dataset
B. Ensure the Quorum drive is backed up only once per week instead of nightly C. Ensure both the
physical and virtual nodes are in the same Avamar group
D. Verify that the Exchange database backup is not scheduled at the same time as the file system backup
Answer: A

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NO.4 A new EMC Avamar customer wants help in setting up their backup groups and schedules. They are
migrating from a traditional tape backup solution with full backups performed once a week and
incrementals in between. They have a regulatory requirement to keep an annual backup for seven years
but want to keep all other backups for one month. Both Microsoft Windows and Linux clients will be
backed up. Based on best practices, what should be recommended?
A. Include all clients in the same group using one dataset and an advanced retention policy
B. Use a separate group for each operating system /retention combination
C. Enable the default group and use that group for all backups
D. Use one group for weekly backups and one for the other days of the week
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer is successfully backing up 50 virtual machines (VMs) hosted on two ESX hosts. There are
two datastores and two proxy servers used for VADP-based backups. They deploy another proxy server
to backup 10 new VMs residing on a new datastore. The backups for the new VMs failed with the
following error:
Event Code: 30931 - Failed to initiate a backup or restore of a virtual machine because no proxy was
found to service the virtual machine. What caused this error?
A. Not enough space is allocated on the proxy server to mount VM snaps
B. Proxy server is not provisioned on the new datastore
C. Proxy host has not been given backup privilege in the vCenter
D. New datastore is not selected for the proxy server in Avamar Administrator
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer has an EMC Avamar system backing up a Celerra running DART 6.0 using a single 36 GB
NDMP Accelerator Node. They are also going to back up a VNX OE 7.0 system using the same NDMP
Accelerator. Each NAS device has four volumes configured on it. Backups will be configured on the
Avamar system for both NAS storage devices to start at the same time.
What will occur when the NDMP backups start using default settings?
A. Both backups will start with two active streams each
B. One NAS device will start its backup with four streams, the other will queue
C. One NAS device will start its backup with one stream, the other will queue
D. Both backups will start with one stream each
Answer: B

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NO.7 An EMC employee has been assigned to run securedelete against two clients for a total of 20 GBs on
an Avamar server. During a planning discussion with the customer, they want to know what the impact on
their Avamar server would be while securedelete is running.
What is the correct response to the customer?
A. GSAN will be in admin mode and the Avamar server will be read only
B. Avamar will continue to function with a limited amount of available threads
C. GSAN will be shut down during the extent of the securedelete task
D. Avamar will continue to function without any limitations
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer has setup their EMC Celerra to backup through an Avamar NDMP Accelerator Node. They
are not seeing any increased performance since the initial backup. They have investigated the Celerra
and there are no outstanding issues.
What is a potential reason for the poor backup performance?
A. Dataset options are set to Level 0
B. Dataset advanced option is blank
C. Data has a high change rate
D. Dataset options are set to Level 1
Answer: A

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NO.9 An EMC Avamar backup administrator wants to use their company login account for administering an
Avamar server. The procedures were followed successfully to update the configuration for external LDAP
authentication. However, they still cannot successfully log into Avamar Administrator with the account.
Which action is needed?
A. Assign a default password to the account in Avamar
B. Add the account to the Avamar server O/S
C. Add the user account to Avamar and assign a role
D. Add an Avamar domain with the same name as the LDAP domain
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer has an EMC Avamar integrated with a Data Domain system as a backup solution. They
would like to use encryption for the backups that are directed to the Data Domain system.
Which method(s) of encryption can be used in this environment?
A. Enable encryption-at-rest on the Data Domain system
B. Enable in-flight encryption between the client and the Data Domain system
C. Both in-flight encryption and encryption-at-rest are not supported
D. Enable both in-flight encryption and encryption-at-rest
Answer: A

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NO.11 An EMC Avamar customer is currently using a 2 TB Avamar Virtual Edition (AVE) for their backup
environment. They want to begin backing up several Oracle databases and file servers running on a new
ESX server. It is determined that a separate AVE should be added to the backup environment for these
new backups.
What should be done when implementing the new configuration?
A. Install the new AVE on a different ESX server from the first AVE
B. Use thin provisioning to create the new AVE
C. Run benchmark tests for acceptable TCP/IP performance
D. Use RAID 6 for the physical disk storing the new virtual disk
Answer: A

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NO.12 An EMC Avamar customer has a Celerra running DART 6.0 with 20 TB of data. There are approximately
10 million files distributed across two Data Movers. They would like to backup the NAS in approximately
five hours. What is the maximum number of streams that can be configured?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.13 An EMC Avamar customer is running a backup that is being directed to a Data Domain system. The
backup has completed successfully; however, it is no longer needed. From Avamar Administrator, the
customer manually deletes the backup.
When is the backup data deleted from the Data Domain system.?
A. Immediately on the Data Domain system
B. Manually deleted on the Data Domain system by the administrator
C. Next time the Avamar system runs garbage collection
D. Next time the Data Domain file system cleaning operation runs
Answer: C

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NO.14 A customer has been performing full backups of their SharePoint farm to an Avamar server. They have
installed the Avamar SharePoint backup client without the GLR feature. They want to perform a restore of
only one web application, but do not want to take any of the SharePoint farm servers offline. What should
be done?
A. Install GLR onto a separate Windows client outside of the farm
B. Install GLR onto the application server to which the web application is to be recovered
C. Install GLR onto all servers of the SharePoint farm
D. Install GLR onto the web front-end server
Answer: A

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NO.15 An EMC customer is using NetWorker with integrated Avamar deduplication nodes. They have expired
a large amount of data on the NetWorker server. After several hours, they notice that the index entries
have been deleted from NetWorker. However, data has not been removed from the deduplication node.
What is a potential reason?
A. Garbage collection has not yet occurred on the deduplication node
B. Data must also be manually expired from within Avamar
C. Garbage collection has been suspended on the NetWorker server
D. Saveset metadata has not been purged from the storage node
Answer: A

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NO.1 A company has a vSphere environment consisting of eight ESXi hosts. Each host is running
EMC
PowerPath/VE and is connected to multiple FA ports on their Symmetrix. PowerPath/VE will not
claim the disk devices presented by their storage array even though the devices are seen by the
hosts.
What is the most likely solution?
A. Configure and register the PowerPath/VE license file
B. Check LUN masking on the array
C. Change the PowerPath/VE failover policy to Symopt
D. Uninstall and reinstall PowerPath/VE
Answer: A

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NO.2 An Oracle ASM disk group consists of two 50 GB LUNs and is currently in use. The Oracle
database requires more storage space and has two 100 GB LUNs available.
What is the recommended way to organize ASM disk groups to make use of additional space?
A. Create a new disk group containing two 100 GB LUNs
B. Extend the current disk group to include the two 100 GB LUNs
C. Create two new disk groups containing one 100 GB LUN each
D. Double the disk group size by extending with one 100 GB LUN
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company uses EMC Symmetrix VMAX storage for their VMware vSphere environment. They
intend to use SRDF/S for disaster recovery.
What is a consideration when mounting datastores on the remote site after a failover?
A. Keep the existing signature on the replica datastore
B. Assign a new signature to the replica datastore
C. Replica datastore must be mounted as read only
D. Original datastore must be unmounted before the replica datastore can be mounted
Answer: A

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NO.4 A company has activated a consistent clone replica of an Oracle database using hot backup
mode
on February 26th. The Oracle instance continues to run until March 6th. On March 7th, the
company realizes that an application problem occurred on February 28th.
What is the most recent point to which the database can be recovered?
A. February 26th
B. February 28th
C. March 6th
D. March 7th
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company's administrator has implemented Symmetrix Access Control. The motherboard in
the
UNIX host with ADMIN privileges was replaced. After this change, the administrator was unable to
issue any Symmetrix Management commands.
What is the next step the administrator should take?
A. Regenerate the Unique ID
B. Reboot the UNIX host
C. Reset the Access Control database
D. Reinstall Solutions Enabler
Answer: A

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NO.6 SRDF/EDP is running in Adaptive Copy Disk mode from the source (R1) site to the secondary
(R21) site. Which SRDF mode is permitted between the R21 and the R2 sites?
A. Adaptive Copy Write Pending
B. Adaptive Copy Disk
C. Synchronous
D. Semi-synchronous
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company uses VMware ESXi servers and EMC Symmetrix VMAX storage arrays. The storage
administrators use the VMware vSphere client on their Microsoft Windows desktops to manage
the environment. They would like to use the EMC Virtual Storage Integrator Path Management
plug-in.
Which path management activities will this plug-in allow?
A. Set multi-pathing policy for all Symmetrix devices
B. Set multi-pathing policy for individual Symmetrix devices
C. Change the multi-pathing ownership of all Symmetrix devices from NMP to PowerPath/VE
D. Change the multi-pathing ownership of individual Symmetrix devices from NMP to
PowerPath/VE
Answer: A

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NO.8 All applications running on an EMC Symmetrix VMAX array are experiencing poor
performance.
The environment is characterized by:
Dissimilar workloads
Inefficient resource utilization
Service levels not being met
What can be done to guarantee service levels of business critical applications?
A. Implement dynamic cache partitioning
B. Balance throughput across ports
C. Re-map devices to evenly map the workload
D. Provision new storage for applications
Answer: A

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NO.9 A company is planning to migrate their Oracle database to EMC Symmetrix VMAX to support
decision support system applications. They would like design guidelines to overcome the existing
performance bottlenecks.
What is the key design guideline?
A. Redo logs and archive logs on separate spindles with RAID 5 protection
B. Redo logs and archive logs on the same spindles RAID 5 protection
C. Redo logs and archive logs on the same spindles with RAID 1 protection
D. Redo logs and archive logs on separate spindles with RAID 1 protection
Answer: D

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NO.10 Storage administrators for an EMC Symmetrix VMAX need to increase allocated storage for
Microsoft Exchange LUNs without interrupting its operation. Performing a virtual LUN migration
causes a critical nightly clone operation to run for hours instead of minutes. This impacts later
dependent jobs, preventing production operations from completing.
How can this impact to the nightly process be minimized?
A. Set a QoS value of 8 for MIR Copy Pace
B. Set a QoS value of 0 for MIR Copy Pace
C. Set SPC value of 1 on the Exchange LUNs
D. Set SPC value of 8 on the clone LUNs
Answer: A

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2014年1月5日星期日

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NO.1 In NetWorker integration with Data Domain Boost, in which component does the processing handled by
the DD Boost library occur?
A. NetWorker storage node
B. Data Domain system
C. NetWorker server
D. NetWorker client
Answer: D

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NO.2 Please check the option that best describes your relationship with EMC:
A. EMC Employee
B. EMC Customer/Partner
C. Other
Answer: B

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NO.3 In order to quickly identify segments, what is stored in Data Domain along with data segments?
A. Fingerprint
B. Parity bit
C. File catalog
D. Protection bit map
Answer: A

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NO.1 What is the fault tolerance of a RAID 5 array, where n is the number of disks in the array?
A. 1
B. n-1
C. 2
D. n-2
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which type of backup should be used to create a backup copy offline without disrupting I/O operations
on a production volume?
A. Cumulative backup
B. Incremental backup
C. Full backup
D. Synthetic full backup
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer has a requirement to restore operations within two hours after a disaster.
What is this time period called?
A. Recovery time objective (RTO)
B. Retention period
C. Recovery point objective (RPO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is moving data from a backup disk to tape, which will later will be stored offsite.
What is this process called?
A. Cloning
B. Staging
C. Aging
D. Mirroring
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement defines retention period?
A. Amount of time available for restoring a particular version of a backup dataset
B. Amount of time available for overwriting a volume containing backups
C. Period of time in which a backup must be restored
D. Amount of time allocated for full system recovery
Answer: A

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NO.6 What terminology is used to describe grouping several physical drives into one logical drive?
A. Concatenation
B. Partitioning
C. Formatting
D. Grouping
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which software component of a backup application sends media metadata to the backup server?
A. Storage node
B. Client
C. NetWorker Management Console
D. Application server
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the primary reason for having disaster recovery backups?
A. To restore data from an alternate site due to data loss at a primary site
B. To restore data when data loss or logical corruptions occur during routine processing
C. To restore data that was archived for regulatory compliance
D. To restore data when data loss occurs due to minor hardware component failures
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is recovery point objective?
A. Maximum allowable time to fully recover an application
B. Actual time that it takes to recover all data
C. Amount of data loss that is acceptable by the business
D. Length of time that backups are kept for recovery purposes
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the interval of time between the creation and expiration of the backup called?
A. Retention period
B. Recovery point objective (RPO)
C. Recovery time objective (RTO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which disk connectivity option supports the highest data transfer rate?
A. SATA
B. SCSI
C. IDE
D. ATA
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the role of the storage node in a client/server backup architecture?
A. Writes data to a backup device
B. Gathers data to be backed up
C. Manages the backup operation
D. Writes metadata to the backup catalog
Answer: A

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NO.13 You are planning the staging policy for disk-to-offsite tape backup media. In addition to available disk
space, which factor is most significant when determining how long to keep the backup data on disk?
A. Length of time when most restore requests are expected to occur
B. Location of offsite storage
C. Cost of shipping and storing tapes
D. Tape capacity
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is a benefit of deploying a separate storage node in the backup environment?
A. Reduced number of backups
B. Increased media utilization
C. Improved security and access control
D. Consolidate backup servers
Answer: D

EMC   E20-005   E20-005

NO.15 What is an example of a PCI connection?
A. Parallel interface between a disk and the controller card
B. Interconnection between a CPU and network card
C. Serial connection between a disk and the controller card
D. Interconnection between a tape drive and a computer
Answer: B

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NO.16 A full backup of a file system is performed once a week on Saturday and cumulative backups are
performed on all other days. Backups start at 20:00 with a two-hour window. Data on the file system
changes every day.
How many backups are required to perform a full system restore as of Friday morning?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 1
D. 7
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the process of moving data from one storage medium to another?
A. Cloning
B. Replication
C. Staging
D. Twinning
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which type of backup only copies the files that have changed since the last full backup.?
A. Cumulative
B. Full
C. Incremental
D. Synthetic full
Answer: A

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NO.19 A business has a recovery point objective (RPO) of nine hours. What does this RPO mean in the event
of a disaster?
A. No more than nine hours of production data can be lost
B. Restore from backup must occur within nine hours
C. Production must be resumed within nine hours
D. A backup copy of the production data must be obtained within nine hours
Answer: A

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NO.20 What are the components of a Logical Volume Manager (LVM)?
A. Physical volumes, volume groups, logical volumes
B. Physical groups, volume groups, logical volumes
C. Physical groups, volume groups, logical groups
D. Physical blocks, volume groups, logical groups
Answer: A

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NO.1 You are using MADlib for Linear Regression analysis. Which value does the statement return?
SELECT (linregr(depvar, indepvar)).r2 FROM zeta1;
A. Goodness of fit
B. Coefficients
C. Standard error
D. P-value
Answer: A

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NO.2 Consider a database with 4 transactions:
Transaction 1: {cheese, bread, milk}
Transaction 2: {soda, bread, milk}
Transaction 3: {cheese, bread}
Transaction 4: {cheese, soda, juice}
The minimum support is 25%. Which rule has a confidence equal to 50%?
A. {bread,milk} => {cheese}
B. {bread} => {milk}
C. {juice} => {soda}
D. {bread} => {cheese}
Answer: D

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NO.3 Your company has 3 different sales teams. Each team's sales manager has developed incentive offers
to increase the size of each sales transaction. Any sales manager whose incentive program can be
shown to increase the size of the average sales transaction will receive a bonus.
Data are available for the number and average sale amount for transactions offering one of the incentives
as well as transactions offering no incentive.
The VP of Sales has asked you to determine analytically if any of the incentive programs has resulted in a
demonstrable increase in the average sale amount. Which analytical technique would be appropriate in
this situation?
A. One-way ANOVA
B. Multi-way ANOVA
C. Student's t-test
D. Wilcoxson Rank Sum Test
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are using the Apriori algorithm to determine the likelihood that a person who owns a home has a
good credit score. You have determined that the confidence for the rules used in the algorithm is > 75%.
You calculate lift = 1.011 for the rule, "People with good credit are homeowners". What can you determine
from the lift calculation?
A. Support for the association is low
B. Leverage of the rules is low
C. The rule is coincidental
D. The rule is true
Answer: C

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NO.5 What would be considered "Big Data"?
A. An OLAP Cube containing customer demographic information about 100,000,000 customers
B. Daily Log files from a web server that receives 100,000 hits per minute
C. Aggregated statistical data stored in a relational database table
D. Spreadsheets containing monthly sales data for a Global 100 corporation
Answer: B

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NO.6 When creating a presentation for a technical audience, what is the main objective?
A. Show that you met the project goals
B. Show how you met the project goals
C. Show if the model will meet the SLA
D. Show the technique to be used in the production environment
Answer: B

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NO.7 The web analytics team uses Hadoop to process access logs. They now want to correlate this data
with structured user data residing in a production single-instance JDBC database. They collaborate with
the production team to import the data into Hadoop. Which tool should they use?
A. Sqoop
B. Pig
C. Chukwa
D. Scribe
Answer: A

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NO.8 Under which circumstance do you need to implement N-fold cross-validation after creating a
regression model?
A. There is not enough data to create a test set.
B. The data is unformatted.
C. There are missing values in the data.
D. There are categorical variables in the model.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which word or phrase completes the statement? Data-ink ratio is to data visualization as __________ .
A. Confusion matrix is to classifier
B. Data scientist is to big data
C. Seasonality is to ARIMA
D. K-means is to Naive Bayes
Answer: A

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NO.10 Consider a database with 4 transactions:
Transaction 1: {cheese, bread, milk}
Transaction 2: {soda, bread, milk}
Transaction 3: {cheese, bread}
Transaction 4: {cheese, soda, juice}
You decide to run the association rules algorithm where minimum support is 50%. Which rule has a
confidence at least 50%?
A. {cheese} => {bread}
B. {juice} => {cheese}
C. {milk} => {soda}
D. {soda} => {milk}
Answer: A

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NO.11 What does the R code
z <- f[1:10, ]
do?
A. Assigns the first 10 rows of f to the vector z
B. Assigns the 1st 10 columns of the 1st row of f to z
C. Assigns a sequence of values from 1 to 10 to z
D. Assigns the 1st 10 columns to z
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which type of numeric value does a logistic regression model estimate?
A. Probability
B. A p-value
C. Any integer
D. Any real number
Answer: A

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NO.13 Your colleague, who is new to Hadoop, approaches you with a question. They want to know how best
to access their data. This colleague has a strong background in data flow languages and programming.
Which query interface would you recommend?
A. Pig
B. Hive
C. Howl
D. HBase
Answer: A

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NO.14 A data scientist plans to classify the sentiment polarity of 10, 000 product reviews collected from the
Internet. What is the most appropriate model to use? Suppose labeled training data is available.
A. Na ve Bayesian classifier
B. Linear regression
C. Logistic regression
D. K-means clustering
Answer: A

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NO.15 In R, functions like plot() and hist() are known as what?
A. generic functions
B. virtual methods
C. virtual functions
D. generic methods
Answer: B

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NO.16 In data visualization, what is used to focus the audience on a key part of a chart?
A. Emphasis colors
B. Detailed text
C. Pastel colors
D. A data table
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which data asset is an example of quasi-structured data.?
A. Webserver log
B. XML data file
C. Database table
D. News article
Answer: A

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NO.18 In which lifecycle stage are test and training data sets created?
A. Model building
B. Model planning
C. Discovery
D. Data preparation
Answer: A

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NO.19 When would you use GROUP BY ROLLUP clause in your OLAP query?
A. where all subtotals and grand totals are to be included in the output
B. where only the subtotals are to be included in the output
C. where only the grand totals are to be included in the output
D. where only specific subtotals and grand totals for a combination of variables are to be included in the
output
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is an appropriate data visualization to use in a presentation for an analyst audience?
A. Pie chart
B. Area chart
C. Stacked bar chart
D. ROC curve
Answer: D

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2013年12月25日星期三

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NO.1 Which of the following statements represents a feature of SnapView Clones?
A. Data can be made available to second host immediately; no synchronization required
B. Copy uses a fraction of Source LUN size
C. Copy requires same space as Source LUN
D. Data copy may be used as Source for backup application running on first host
Answer: C

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NO.2 XXXX .com has a primary CX600 array and a secondary CX400 array. XXXX .com
wants to do data backup on the secondary site while the applications are still running on
the primary site. How can XXXX .com accomplish this goal?
A. Array types are not compatible
B. Admsnap and PowerPath
C. MirrorView and SnapView
D. MirrorView and Navisphere CLI
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the default percentage of cache capacity at which high water mark cache flushing
is initiated in a CLARiiON system?
A. 80%
B. 92%
C. 55%
D. 75%
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Concurrent SRDF has the capability of dynamically defining relationships between
SRDF Source (R1) and Target (R2) devices
B. Concurrent SRDF has the ability to use both RAF processors for Fibre Channel host
connections
C. Concurrent SRDF enables SRDF between Symmetrix systems using Fibre Channel
switches
D. With concurrent SRDF, a single SRDF Source device (R1) can be simultaneously
paired with two SRDF Target devices (R2)
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following Celerra replication options offers synchronous replication over
campus distances for disaster recovery?
A. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/NearCopy
B. TimeFinder/FS SnapSure
C. TimeFinder/FS Snapcopy
D. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/FarCopy
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following statements best describes ControlCenter Autofixes?
A. Commands that can be run to fix a problem notification from an alert
B. Rules containing all of the general criteria for storage allocation requests
C. Groups of storage devices that SPS will search for available storage
D. A collection of Symmetrix devices used to query status and impart control operations
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the maximum number of CLARiiON Source systems that can be mirrored to one
Target system?
A. 16
B. 4
C. 2
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two of the following are Celerra Replicator features?
A. Point-in-time copy over an IP network
B. Only sends Control Station configuration parameters over the IP network
C. Synchronous data recovery
D. Only sends changed data over the IP network
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Which of the following Windows-based applications in ControlCenter displays
Symmetrix performance for analysis?
A. Symmetrix Manager
B. StorageScope
C. TimeFinder/SRDF QoS
D. Performance Manager
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the purpose of the Performance Manager in ControlCenter?
A. It automatically allocates storage device to hosts
B. It splits and establishes with standard and Business Continuance Volume (BCV)
devices
C. It reports key historical performance data
D. It converts device types between standard and BCV
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following components are required in order to enable write caching in a
CLARiiON array?
A. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 4 DAE shelves and at least one standby power
supply
B. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power
supply
C. 2 power supplies, 4 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power
supply
D. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 DAE shelves and at least one standby power
supply
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following is not a CLARiiON High Availability feature?
A. Dual consoles
B. Dual power supplies
C. Dual ported drives
D. Dual storage processors
E. Dual LCCs
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which two of the following can you use to allocate CLARiiON LUNs to a server?
(Choose two.)
A. Connectrix Manager
B. TimerFinder
C. ESN Manager
D. Navisphere Manager
E. ControlCenter
F. TimeFinder/Snap
Answer: D,E

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NO.14 In the first step of a read cache miss operation on a Symmetrix, the host sends a read
request. What is the next step?
A. The Channel Director checks the track table
B. The Channel Director sends data to the host
C. The Disk Director retrieves data
D. The Disk Director sends data to the host
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following are configuration options on the NS600 Data Movers? (Choose
two.)
A. One Data Mover is primary, and one acts as a standby
B. All four (4) Data Movers are primary
C. Both Data Movers are primary
D. One Data Mover acts as a standby for the other three (3) Data Movers
Answer: A,C

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NO.16 Which of the following statements is true regarding active zone sets in ControlCenter?
A. Associate an active zone set with multiple fabrics or VSANs at once.
B. Place a copy of an active zone set in the Planned Zone Sets folder for
activation/modification.
C. Directly modify an active zone set.
D. Directly delete an active zone set.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following statements best describes a Fan-out Ratio for a SAN attached
array?
A. The qualified maximum number of initiators that can access a single Target port
through a SAN
B. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be attached to an initiator
port in a SAN
C. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be direct attached to a HBA
port in a SAN
D. The maximum number of HBA and storage ports that can be contained in a zone on a
switch
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following protocols do open systems hosts use to access storage in Fibre
Channel SANs?
A. SCSI
B. ESCON
C. SNMP
D. FICON
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following statements is true?
A. ControlCenter agent activity is policy-based and user-defined
B. ControlCenter agents can only be installed on the Repository server
C. All ControlCenter agents communicate with each other
D. ControlCenter agents tier handles data presentation
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following products can be used to create Logical Volumes on a Symmetrix
system?
A. ControlCenter Symmetrix Manager
B. VisualSRM
C. ControlCenter Automated Resource Manager
D. ControlCenter StorageScope
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which two of the following are features of TimeFinder/Mirror Clone? (Choose two.)
A. Utilizes VDEVs
B. Copy on access to allow for instant access to data
C. Point in time copy of Standard or BCV device
D. Requires only a small fraction of Source volume capacity
Answer: B,C

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NO.22 Which two of the following are iSCSI naming conventions? (Choose two.)
A. EUI
B. iQN
C. iSNS
D. DNS
Answer: A,B

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NO.23 Which of the following sequences would ensure that an I/O is completed when a HBA on
a host with PowerPath fails when the I/O is being driven through it?
A. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, drives I/O through an alternate path, and takes the
failed path offline
B. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, takes the failed path offline and drives I/O through an
alternate path
C. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, drives I/O through an alternate path, and
receives I/O timeout
D. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, receives I/O timeout and drives I/O through an
alternate path
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which of the following is monitored by the ControlCenter SAN agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. Windows 2000 disk
C. Legato Networker
D. CLARiiON
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which of the following is monitored by the ControlCenter storage agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. Legato Networker
C. CLARiiON
D. Windows 2000 disk
Answer: C

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NO.26 What is the purpose of storage groups in a CLARiiON storage array?
A. LUN expansion
B. LUN mirroring
C. LUN groups
D. LUN masking
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which of the following statements represents a feature of file level host storage access?
A. The host sees Logical Volumes as Physical Volumes
B. Data is accessed using NFS, CIFS, and FTP
C. The host typically has exclusive access to Logical Volumes
D. The storage system presents LUNs to hosts
Answer: B

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NO.28 In the first step of the copy on first write mechanism used with Reserved LUN Pool, the
host sends a write request to the Source LUN. What is the next step?
A. The snapshot pointer is changed to chunk in Reserved LUN Pool
B. The original Source LUN data chunk is written to Reserved LUN Pool
C. The snapshot pointer writes to Reserved LUN Pool
D. The host data is written to Source LUN
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which two of the following statements are features of CLARiiON Access Logix?
(Choose two.)
A. LUN masking requires the use of storage groups
B. The storage processors in the array do not share Access Logix databases
C. Hosts need to be connected to the storage group to perform LUN masking
D. Storage groups cannot be destroyed once created
Answer: A,C

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NO.30 Which of the following web interfaces can be used to manage standalone M-Series
switches?
A. Web interface is not available
B. EWS
C. Web Tools
D. Fabric Manager
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-485
Exam Name: EMC (Content Management Application Architecture Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 139 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-24

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NO.1 A company requires that when an article document is saved it should inherit certain attributes from the
folder it is stored into.
How should you design this solution?
A. create a custom TBO that overrides the doSave method of the folder object, so that when documents
are saved in it, their attributes are updated with the folder's attributes
B. create a relation between the folder and the document type with cascade update property set and add
the attributes to be inherited
C. create a Smart Container for the folder with a member relationship for the document and add the
attributes to be inherited
D. create a method that is scheduled as a job to update newly saved article documents.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are designing a Documentum application for managing project documents. When a new project is
initiated, the system should automatically create a folder for the project and populate it with 5 sub-folders
for the project phases and the appropriate document templates within each phase folder
Which approach meets these requirements with minimal effort?
A. construct a Smart Container with folders and document templates
B. define a relationship object for folders and document templates
C. create a Virtual Document for document templates and relationship for folders
D. customize Webtop to set up project folder structure
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company has an existing website and web publishing system. They are expanding the authoring of
content to non-web development staff and want to provide a simple interface where users can author
content for both internal and external websites. They will need considerable flexibility in the development
of the authoring interface for varied types of content but would prefer not to customize. The system should
also be able to share that content with their existing web content management system.
Besides WebPublisher, which products include a user interface that can be configured and used for
web-ready content authoring?
A. Webtop and Forms Builder (FB)
B. Webtop and Process Builder (PB)
C. TaskSpace and Workflow Manager
D. Digital Asset Manager (DAM) and Process Builder (PB)
Answer: A

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NO.4 A financial institution requests an SOA-enabled account opening process solution and has the
following requirements:
-robust workflow capability with support for high-fidelity forms
-simple and configurable transaction centric interface
-seamless integration with their Global Account Management System
Which solution meets the customer's requirements while minimizing the development effort?
A. TaskSpace, Process Suite, and Documentum Foundation Services (DFS)
B. Webtop, Adobe Forms Designer, and Process Suite
C. a custom solution with SOA -enabled Business Process Manager (BPM)
D. eRoom, Process Suite and Documentum Foundation Services (DFS)
Answer: A

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NO.5 A new Documentum customer without any experience with Content Management systems has decided
to purchase Documentum for its out-of-the-box functionality. They have general requirements for their
users to have web access to basic content storage, library services, full-text search, and workflow.
Besides Content Server and Index Server, at a minimum, which solution would meet this customer's
requirements?
A. Webtop only
B. Webtop and Process Suite
C. Process Suite only
D. TaskSpace and Process Suite
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are designing the data model for a retailer's catalog application. A description of all products for
sale will be stored in the Documentum repository. There are thousands of different types of products.
Each product may have a unique set of attributes. Users should be able to add or remove attributes from
a product definition at runtime.
Which approach should you use to provide the required flexibility in data types, and also provide good
query performance when searching for product information?
A. You create a type called product that contains all common attributes and attach and detach attribute
aspects as required. For searching, you use the TRY_FTDQL_FIRST DQL hint.
B. You use XML content stored in an XML store, add and remove attributes by modifying the XML content,
and use IDfXQuery to search for product information.
C. You use lightweight objects with the parent object containing common attribute values. Parent objects
are created for each product description. For searching, you use NOFTDQL queries.
D. You create a standard object type hierarchy and issue alter type statements, as needed, to modify
types at runtime. For searching, you use FTDQL queries.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer needs a solution to address a heavy volume case management requirement. All of the
content attached to the cases are media files (audio/video). The key requirements are to have a simple
interface focusing on core functionality, which is case processing. The customer also needs the ability for
the case reviewer to see all information in a single screen, including the file attached to the case.
In addition to Process Suite, which solution would you recommend?
A. TaskSpace and Document Image Services
B. Digital Asset Manager (DAM)
C. customized TaskSpace
D. custom interface
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer needs to secure and preserve the authenticity of PDF documents by applying an
electronic signature. All the PDF documents need to be identified by a unique reference corresponding to
their department and function, and the reference must be system-generated. A notification system is
required to alert the consumer of the documents for them to read and agree upon. If the consumer rejects
the document, they should be able to select the appropriate reason for rejection.
Which product will implement the above functionality?
A. Records Manager (RM)
B. TaskSpace and Adobe Forms
C. Documentum Compliance Manager (DCM)
D. Information Rights Manager (IRM)
Answer: C

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NO.9 You create a new custom type with the following attributes:
c_product string(32)
c_platform string(32)
What is created in the database (DB)?
A. a single DB table only
B. two DB tables only
C. a single DB table and four DB views
D. two DB tables and two DB views
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer wants to maintain the annual financial reports using a Documentum Content Management
System. Different parts of the document must be authored and reviewed by different people and individual
parts of the document must be combined in a particular order to form the final PDF document.
What is useful for implementing the solution?
A. PDF Annotations Services and relationship objects
B. Smart Containers and Content Transformation Services (CTS)
C. Virtual Document and Advanced Document Transformation Services (ADTS)
D. XML applications and Media Transformation Services (MTS)
Answer: C

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NO.11 A Documentum customer is using Webtop to manage their documents. They want to provide read
access to these documents for their 2000 customers located globally. The customer has already
purchased Web Content Management (WCM) and does not want to incur any additional cost.
How can the customer meet these requirements with minimal effort?
A. create user accounts for their clients in the repository and expose Webtop outside the firewall with
"read" permission on the documents for the clients
B. use WebPublisher and Site Caching Services (SCS) to publish the documents to a website and provide
their clients access to the website
C. use Site Caching Services (SCS) to publish the documents to a website and provide their clients
access to the website
D. create a customization to run a nightly job to extract documents out of the repository and copy them to
a website, and provide their clients access to the website
Answer: C

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NO.12 The type hierarchy that is shown has only custom attributes displayed.
The following DQL statement is executed:
select
r_object_id
, object_name
, c_channel
from
c_product
where
datediff(week, r_creation_date, date(today)) <= 1
How many table joins would the query cause in the database when executed as a superuser?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: C

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NO.13 You are building a solution to automate a Grants Management Process. Your workflow involves
searching documents in an external non-Documentum Repository. You also need to generate a graphical
report on auto activities.
Which EMC product combination achieves this?
A. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), TaskSpace
B. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor(BAM), Webtop
C. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
D. Workflow Manager, Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
Answer: C

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NO.14 An engineer designs the data model that is shown for a shipping application in a repository that does
not have fulltext search enabled.
It is required that a query returns all shipping_transaction documents, shipped on a given shipping_date,
with a particular shipping_code.
Querying with either shipping_code or shipping_date alone would return hundreds of thousands of
objects. Querying on both shipping_date and shipping_code, returns a selective set of objects.
Given the example query:
select r_object_id, customer_id, shipping_date
from shipping_transaction
where na_specific_data.shipping_code=4267.86
and shipping_date = date('11/25/2008')
Which statement is true about use of aspects in this scenario?
A. It will cause a DQL parser error, because it is NOT possible to include both aspect and standard
attributes within the same query.
B. It will improve query response time, because the aspect metadata is only applied to some
shipping_transaction documents.
C. It will degrade query response time, because a database index on the combination of attributes that
make the query selective CANNOT be created.
D. It will degrade query response time, because the aspect metadata is only applied to some
shipping_transaction documents.
Answer: C

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NO.15 A company that develops highly-structured content via XML authoring has decided to use
Documentum for its XML chunking capabilities. They are also looking to reduce the problems they have
been experiencing with their existing model of authoring via a client side application and storing in a
centralized store. They understand that some level of customization or specialized configuration is
required.
Which action would use the least custom code in favor of configuration?
A. develop a set of forms using Forms Builder for users to author with a configured XML application for
chunking
B. develop a set of extended WebPublisher components for users to author with a configured XML store
for chunking
C. develop a set of extended Webtop components for users to author with a configured XML application
for chunking
D. develop a set of extended Digital Asset Manager (DAM) components for users to author with a
configured XML application for chunking
Answer: A

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NO.16 An insurance company has standardized the client desktop on the Microsoft Office platform. The
company designed a claim Documentum workflow on Microsoft Word documents. The workflow needs to
be manually initiated by the user. Users would prefer a more integrated solution so that they do not need
to launch multiple applications to start a workflow.
Which product meets these requirements?
A. Webtop
B. Application Connectors
C. Process Integrator
D. Web Development Kit (WDK) applications
Answer: B

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NO.17 In addition to Content Server, which server products are typically used for Interactive Content
Management Solutions?
A. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Enterprise Content Integration Services
(ECIS)
B. Document Transformation Services (DTS), Records Manager (RM)
C. Media Transformation Services (MTS), Business Activity Monitoring (BAM)
D. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Site Caching Services (SCS)
Answer: D

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NO.18 In addition to Digital Asset Manager (DAM), which client products are part of the Interactive Content
Management Solution?
A. Web Publisher (WP), File Share Services (FSS)
B. Webtop, File Share Services (FSS)
C. Webtop, TaskSpace
D. TaskSpace, File Share Services (FSS)
Answer: A

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NO.19 In addition to Documentum Compliance Manager (DCM) and Records Manager (RM), which products
contain a user interface and are part of the compliance and archiving products suite offered by
Documentum?
A. only Retention Policy Services (RPS)
B. Retention Policy Services (RPS) and Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
C. Content Storage Services (CSS)
D. only Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
Answer: A

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NO.20 A customer has an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system with a series of web services built for
integration with existing financial and other enterprise systems. They want to add Documentum as their
Enterprise Content Management System. They prefer to minimize the number of necessary user
interfaces and want to make it so users ultimately do not need a Documentum interface. You recommend
a phased approach to integration with some initial user interface.
Which options and products meet the customer's needs?
A. Phase 1 Content Server and Webtop Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Services (DFS) and High
Volume Server (HVS)
B. Phase 1 Content Server and High Volume Server (HVS) Phase 2 Documentum Foundation
Classes/Business Objects Foundation and Business Process Services (BPS)
C. Phase 1 Content Server and Webtop Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Services (DFS) and
TaskSpace
D. Phase 1 Content Server and Business Process Services (BPS) Phase 2 TaskSpace and Process
Builder (PB)
Answer: A

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NO.21 A customer has a remote office where there is limited IT support to maintain a Documentum
installation. There is a Wide Area Network with low bandwidth and high latency between the primary and
the remote sites.
Which solution best provides the user with the ability to read and write frequently used content at the
remote location with minimal IT support?
A. Content Server with Distributed Storage at the remote location
B. Webtop with remote users added to the express_user role
C. Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS) at the remote location
D. File Share Services (FSS) at the remote location
Answer: C

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NO.22 An Enterprise Architect (EA) who has no knowledge on Documentum proposes a distributed
architecture for a Document and Process Management solution. The architect suggests creating web
services using SOAP 1.2 and JAX-WS, a Data Access Layer with POJO objects using Documentum
Foundation Classes (DFC) and Documentum Repository. The EA believes that this architecture will yield
better performance for large content transfer, and the ability to replace Documentum with any Content
Management Solution (CMS) without much impact on the system.
As a Documentum application architect, you need to validate and provide input on this architecture. You
must consider that the system must have reusable components and reduce development time.
What should you do?
A. approve the proposed architecture because the EA has overall knowledge about the enterprise
B. recommend building a custom solution with DFC and no web services, because DFC will give much
better performance
C. recommend using DFS and extending it as needed
D. recommend building web services using the REST framework and DFC to access the Documentum
Repository
Answer: C

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NO.23 A company has a requirement to develop an application to manage a group of documents in a folder
through a business process. As the folder progresses, the different document types in that folder change
security based on status, their type, as well as the values of different attributes for those different types.
They are deciding whether to use Documentum workflow or an external workflow system.
Which type of configuration or customization will support the functionality without committing to using
Documentum versus a third-party workflow tool?
A. policy configuration only
B. policy configuration plus customization
C. process configuration only
D. process configuration plus customization
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which EMC product is used to convert the text print stream into PDF format, extract the metadata, and
ingest the content into Documentum Repository?
A. Document Transformation Services
B. Import Manager
C. Archive Services Reports (ASR)
D. Bulk Loader
Answer: C

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NO.25 A law firm that handles a large volume of cases requires a system that meets the following
requirements:
-provides a central location to create, store and manage documents
-tracks discussions on a case and advice given
-protects the content of files sent to co-counsels and clients
Which solution meets the law firm's requirements?
A. Knowledge Worker solution and Information Rights Manager (IRM) Services
B. Transactional Content Management solution and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
C. Interactive Content Management solution and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
D. Knowledge Worker solution and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
Answer: A

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NO.26 You create a new custom type with the following attributes:
c_product string(32)
c_platform string(32) repeating
What is created in the database (DB)?
A. a single DB table only
B. two DB tables only
C. a single DB table and two DB views
D. two DB tables and four DB views
Answer: D

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NO.27 A pharmaceutical company wants to implement a records management program that is cost effective.
The company needs a solution that provides the following capabilities:
- ability to classify records
- ability to apply retention on records
- ability to dispose records
- ability to hold records from disposition
Which Documentum product provides these capabilities and minimizes licensing costs?
A. Records Manager Administrator (RMA)
B. Records Manager (RM)
C. Retention Policy Services (RPS)
D. Physical Records Manager (PRM)
Answer: C

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NO.28 A customer is planning to build a WebPublisher template with product name and product description
elements. When a user enters the values for the product name and product description fields in the
content, the product name value from the content needs to be copied to the keyword attribute.
Which solution meets this requirement with minimal effort?
A. customize WebPublisher WDK component to update attribute values upon saving of documents
B. create a TBO to update attribute values upon saving of documents
C. create an XML application to update attribute values from document content
D. create a custom SBO application and invoke it on document save.
Answer: C

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NO.29 You have integrated Documentum Repository with Microsoft Exchange Server. You have been asked to
reduce storage costs by using content compression and de-duplication.
Which EMC solution meets these requirements?
A. Content Services for EMC Centera and Content Storage Service (CSS)
B. Content Storage Service (CSS) and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
C. Documentum Client for Outlook (DCO) and Content Services for EMC Centera
D. High Volume Server and Archive Services for Email
Answer: A

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NO.30 A customer wants to reduce storage cost. The company's infrastructure architect advises that tiered
storage be implemented and certain file sizes and formats be stored in the lowest tier. The company has
enterprise licenses for all Documentum products and wants to know how the architect's recommendation
can be implemented in Documentum.
Which policies can be used for this implementation?
A. containment policies
B. assignment policies
C. retention policies
D. naming policies
Answer: B

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