2014年2月24日星期一

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Exam Code: 250-351
Exam Name: Symantec (Admin of Veritas Storage Foundation HA 5.0 for Windows)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 253 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 If a persistent resource in a service group named SG1 faults, Veritas Cluster Server fails the
service group over to another system if which two conditions are met? (Choose two.)
A.The ManageFault attribute is set.
B.The AutoFailOver attribute is set.
C.Another system in the cluster is available to which SG1 can failover.
D.The AutoRestart attribute is set.
E.Another system in a different cluster is available to which SG1 can failover.
Correct:B C

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.2 Which functionality is added to the Java console when accessing the Veritas Cluster Server
Simulator rather than a running cluster? (Choose two.)
A.power off/on a system
B.delete a system
C.fault a resource
D.fault a heartbeat link
E.power off/on a disk array
F.remove a heartbeat link
Correct:A C

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.3 What are two valid settings for FailOverPolicy? (Choose two.)
A.Priority
B.RoundRobin
C.Order
D.Failover
E.Capacity
Correct:A B

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.4 What is the default level of authorization of a new Veritas Cluster Server user?
A.Cluster Administrator
B.Cluster Operator
C.Cluster Guest
D.Group Administrator
E.Group Operator
Correct:C

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.5 A new file share service group is configured using the FileShare Configuration Wizard. What is
the default value for the ForceUnmount attribute for the MountV resource?
A.NONE
B.ALL
C.READ_ONLY
D.READ_WRITE
Correct:C

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.6 Which two attributes must be defined for a SQLServer2005 resource? (Choose two.)
A.UserAccount
B.Instance
C.DetailMonitor
D.LanmanResName
E.MountV
Correct:B D

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.7 What is the correct configuration of Exchange to enable failover in a cluster?
A.Active/Passive with four systems and two Exchange instances
B.Active/Active with four systems and five Exchange instances
C.Active/Active with four systems each running multiple Exchange instances
D.Active/Passive with four systems and four Exchange instances
Correct:A

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.8 Which two files are required in order to start the Veritas Cluster Server Simulator? (Choose
two.)
A.main.cf
B.main.cf.previous
C.main.cf.sim
D.types.cf
E.types.cf.previous
F.types.cf.sim
Correct:A D

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.9 Which resource type attribute is modified to reduce the fault detection time?
A.MonitorTimeOut
B.MonitorInterval
C.FaultOnMonitorTimeouts
D.OnlineMonitorInterval
Correct:B

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.10 A resource has the ResourceOwner attribute set to Marc. The resource has faulted. Who can
clear the fault?
A.any Cluster Administrator
B.any Cluster Guest
C.a Windows domain user named Marc, with or without a Veritas Cluster Server account
D.a Veritas Cluster Server user named Marc, with Cluster Guest priveleges
Correct:A

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.11 Given a three-node cluster running two instances of Exchange with an any-to-any
configuration, which FailOverPolicy prevents one instance of Exchange from attempting to fail
over to the node with Exchange running on it?
A.Round-robin
B.Priority
C.Load
D.Exclusive
Correct:C

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.12 A PostOnline trigger is being tested on a three-system cluster with systems named SystemA,
SystemB, and SystemC. The trigger works on SystemA, but it fails to run on SystemB and
SystemC. What is a possible reason for this?
A.The PostOnline trigger is missing from SystemB and SystemC.
B.The hatrigger script must be run on all systems to enable the PostOnline trigger.
C.The PostOnline attribute is set to False on SystemB and SystemC.
D.The Veritas Cluster Server engine had an error while replicating the trigger to SystemB and SystemC.
Correct:A

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.13 An update to SQL Server makes changes to registry keys on the active system. Which type of
resource copies these changes to the target system on failover?
A.RegKey
B.KeyRep
C.Replicate
D.RegRep
Correct:D

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.14 Which service group attribute setting calls a user-defined script that checks for external
conditions before bringing the service group online?
A.PreOnlining
B.PreOnline
C.Priority
D.Probed
Correct:B

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.15 During a test of a persistent resource, the Veritas Cluster Server engine log indicates that the
service group and the persistent resource enter the FAULTED state on all systems in the cluster.
The resource enters the ONLINE state after the root cause of the fault is corrected. Which default
attribute setting allows the service group to attempt to start without manual intervention?
A.AutoStart
B.AutoClear
C.AutoRestart
D.AutoFailover
Correct:C

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.16 You are using the Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) Java console to connect to a VCS Simulator
session that is running within a production VCS cluster. The Java console is unable to connect to
the VCS Simulator session. What are two possible causes for the connection problem? (Choose
two.)
A.HAD for the production VCS cluster is not running.
B.The VCS Simulator is not running.
C.The port number is incorrect.
D.The hashadow process for the VCS cluster is hung.
E.The ClusterService group is offline.
Correct:B C

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.17 A cluster has three systems: S1, S2, and S3; and six service groups: SGa, SGb, SGc, SGd, SGe,
and SGf. The SGa, SGd, and SGf service groups are online on the S1 system. The SGc and SGe
service groups are online on the S2 system. The SGb service group is online on the S3 system.
Given the partial main.cf definition: Group SGb ( SystemList = { S1 = 0, S2 = 1, S3 = 1 }
AutoStartList = { S1, S2, S3 } FailOverPolicy = RoundRobin ) If the S3 system reboots, what
happens to SGb?
A.It goes to system S1.
B.It goes to system S2.
C.It goes to system S3.
D.It remains offline.
Correct:B

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.18 A Web hosting company has an eight-node cluster running 60 Web servers. Their failover
objective is to distribute the load equally among all nodes. Each Web server has approximately
the same load on the servers. All servers are identical. Which FailOverPolicy accomplishes this
with the least amount of effort on the part of the administrator?
A.Load
B.Priority
C.RoundRobin
D.Average
Correct:C

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.19 Refer to the exhibit. A new VMDg resource is manually added to an existing service group, but
the VMDg resource fails to probe and shows a red question mark on the Veritas Cluster Server
Java console. What is a possible reason for this condition?
A.The DiskGroupName attribute was typed incorrectly.
B.The ForceImport attribute was set to True.
C.The DGGuid attribute was left blank.
D.The VMDg resource was set to non-critical.
Correct:A

Symantec   250-351   250-351   250-351

NO.20 Given the following information: include "types.cf" cluster default_clus ( UserNames = { aaron
= alkdsjfaldjaldfaH, barbara = ieruhrkafhkafhake, carmen = urHkjREOHGkajhuel, dionne =
lasdjfasiLjirrljl, edward = asdlfjaielajfLKio, fung = EIwfjsldfjaldfjaM, georgia = LlkjLriLKjrleirka }
Administrators = { aaron } Operators = { barbara } CounterInterval = 5 ) group group1 ( SystemList
= { sys1 = 0, sys2 = 1 } AutoStartList = { sys1 } Administrators = { carmen } Operators = { dionne } )
group group2 ( SystemList = { sys2 = 0, sys1 = 1 } AutoStartList = { sys2 } Administrators =
{ edward } Operators = { fung } ) Which two users can persistently freeze group2? (Choose two.)
A.aaron
B.barbara
C.carmen
D.edward
E.fung
F.georgia
Correct:A D

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Exam Code: 251-351
Exam Name: Symantec (Admin of Veritas Storage Foundation HA 5.0 for Windows)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 253 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A PostOnline trigger is being tested on a three-system cluster with systems named SystemA,
SystemB, and SystemC. The trigger works on SystemA, but it fails to run on SystemB and
SystemC. What is a possible reason for this?
A.The PostOnline trigger is missing from SystemB and SystemC.
B.The hatrigger script must be run on all systems to enable the PostOnline trigger.
C.The PostOnline attribute is set to False on SystemB and SystemC.
D.The Veritas Cluster Server engine had an error while replicating the trigger to SystemB and SystemC.
Correct:A

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NO.2 What is the default level of authorization of a new Veritas Cluster Server user?
A.Cluster Administrator
B.Cluster Operator
C.Cluster Guest
D.Group Administrator
E.Group Operator
Correct:C

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NO.3 An update to SQL Server makes changes to registry keys on the active system. Which type of
resource copies these changes to the target system on failover?
A.RegKey
B.KeyRep
C.Replicate
D.RegRep
Correct:D

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NO.4 A cluster has three systems: S1, S2, and S3; and six service groups: SGa, SGb, SGc, SGd, SGe,
and SGf. The SGa, SGd, and SGf service groups are online on the S1 system. The SGc and SGe
service groups are online on the S2 system. The SGb service group is online on the S3 system.
Given the partial main.cf definition: Group SGb ( SystemList = { S1 = 0, S2 = 1, S3 = 1 }
AutoStartList = { S1, S2, S3 } FailOverPolicy = RoundRobin ) If the S3 system reboots, what
happens to SGb?
A.It goes to system S1.
B.It goes to system S2.
C.It goes to system S3.
D.It remains offline.
Correct:B

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NO.5 What are two valid settings for FailOverPolicy? (Choose two.)
A.Priority
B.RoundRobin
C.Order
D.Failover
E.Capacity
Correct:A B

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NO.6 A new file share service group is configured using the FileShare Configuration Wizard. What is
the default value for the ForceUnmount attribute for the MountV resource?
A.NONE
B.ALL
C.READ_ONLY
D.READ_WRITE
Correct:C

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NO.7 Given the following information: include "types.cf" cluster default_clus ( UserNames = { aaron
= alkdsjfaldjaldfaH, barbara = ieruhrkafhkafhake, carmen = urHkjREOHGkajhuel, dionne =
lasdjfasiLjirrljl, edward = asdlfjaielajfLKio, fung = EIwfjsldfjaldfjaM, georgia = LlkjLriLKjrleirka }
Administrators = { aaron } Operators = { barbara } CounterInterval = 5 ) group group1 ( SystemList
= { sys1 = 0, sys2 = 1 } AutoStartList = { sys1 } Administrators = { carmen } Operators = { dionne } )
group group2 ( SystemList = { sys2 = 0, sys1 = 1 } AutoStartList = { sys2 } Administrators =
{ edward } Operators = { fung } ) Which two users can persistently freeze group2? (Choose two.)
A.aaron
B.barbara
C.carmen
D.edward
E.fung
F.georgia
Correct:A D

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NO.8 During a test of a persistent resource, the Veritas Cluster Server engine log indicates that the
service group and the persistent resource enter the FAULTED state on all systems in the cluster.
The resource enters the ONLINE state after the root cause of the fault is corrected. Which default
attribute setting allows the service group to attempt to start without manual intervention?
A.AutoStart
B.AutoClear
C.AutoRestart
D.AutoFailover
Correct:C

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NO.9 A Web hosting company has an eight-node cluster running 60 Web servers. Their failover
objective is to distribute the load equally among all nodes. Each Web server has approximately
the same load on the servers. All servers are identical. Which FailOverPolicy accomplishes this
with the least amount of effort on the part of the administrator?
A.Load
B.Priority
C.RoundRobin
D.Average
Correct:C

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NO.10 Which functionality is added to the Java console when accessing the Veritas Cluster Server
Simulator rather than a running cluster? (Choose two.)
A.power off/on a system
B.delete a system
C.fault a resource
D.fault a heartbeat link
E.power off/on a disk array
F.remove a heartbeat link
Correct:A C

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NO.11 You are using the Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) Java console to connect to a VCS Simulator
session that is running within a production VCS cluster. The Java console is unable to connect to
the VCS Simulator session. What are two possible causes for the connection problem? (Choose
two.)
A.HAD for the production VCS cluster is not running.
B.The VCS Simulator is not running.
C.The port number is incorrect.
D.The hashadow process for the VCS cluster is hung.
E.The ClusterService group is offline.
Correct:B C

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NO.12 Given a three-node cluster running two instances of Exchange with an any-to-any
configuration, which FailOverPolicy prevents one instance of Exchange from attempting to fail
over to the node with Exchange running on it?
A.Round-robin
B.Priority
C.Load
D.Exclusive
Correct:C

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NO.13 Which service group attribute setting calls a user-defined script that checks for external
conditions before bringing the service group online?
A.PreOnlining
B.PreOnline
C.Priority
D.Probed
Correct:B

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NO.14 Refer to the exhibit. A new VMDg resource is manually added to an existing service group, but
the VMDg resource fails to probe and shows a red question mark on the Veritas Cluster Server
Java console. What is a possible reason for this condition?
A.The DiskGroupName attribute was typed incorrectly.
B.The ForceImport attribute was set to True.
C.The DGGuid attribute was left blank.
D.The VMDg resource was set to non-critical.
Correct:A

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NO.15 A resource has the ResourceOwner attribute set to Marc. The resource has faulted. Who can
clear the fault?
A.any Cluster Administrator
B.any Cluster Guest
C.a Windows domain user named Marc, with or without a Veritas Cluster Server account
D.a Veritas Cluster Server user named Marc, with Cluster Guest priveleges
Correct:A

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NO.16 Which two attributes must be defined for a SQLServer2005 resource? (Choose two.)
A.UserAccount
B.Instance
C.DetailMonitor
D.LanmanResName
E.MountV
Correct:B D

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NO.17 If a persistent resource in a service group named SG1 faults, Veritas Cluster Server fails the
service group over to another system if which two conditions are met? (Choose two.)
A.The ManageFault attribute is set.
B.The AutoFailOver attribute is set.
C.Another system in the cluster is available to which SG1 can failover.
D.The AutoRestart attribute is set.
E.Another system in a different cluster is available to which SG1 can failover.
Correct:B C

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NO.18 What is the correct configuration of Exchange to enable failover in a cluster?
A.Active/Passive with four systems and two Exchange instances
B.Active/Active with four systems and five Exchange instances
C.Active/Active with four systems each running multiple Exchange instances
D.Active/Passive with four systems and four Exchange instances
Correct:A

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NO.19 Which two files are required in order to start the Veritas Cluster Server Simulator? (Choose
two.)
A.main.cf
B.main.cf.previous
C.main.cf.sim
D.types.cf
E.types.cf.previous
F.types.cf.sim
Correct:A D

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NO.20 Which resource type attribute is modified to reduce the fault detection time?
A.MonitorTimeOut
B.MonitorInterval
C.FaultOnMonitorTimeouts
D.OnlineMonitorInterval
Correct:B

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Exam Code: 250-251
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of HA Solutions for UNIX (VCS 5.0))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 208 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which attributes impact service group failover? (Choose three.)
A.FailOver
B.AutoFailOver
C.Faulted
D.FaultPropagation
E.Frozen
Answer:B D E

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NO.2 Which attribute enables VCS to bring a resource online after it goes offline unexpectedly and before
faulting the resource?
A.RestartLimit
B.OnlineRestartLimit
C.AutoRestartLimit
D.OnlineRetryLimit
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which conditions are recommended for a successful VCS patch installation? (Choose two.)
A.The clustered application must be shut down.
B.VCS must be shut down only on the server being patched.
C.VCS must be shut down on all cluster nodes.
D.GAB and LLT must be shut down on all cluster nodes.
E.GAB and LLT must remain running and connected.
Answer:C D

Symantec   250-251   250-251

NO.4 When preparing to install VCS on the S1 and S2 systems, what should you do to verify software
compatibility? (Choose three.)
A.check the VCS release notes for supported software
B.run the installvcs recheck S1 S2 command
C.let the installvcs script check compatibility at install
D.run the installvcs ompat S1 S2 command
E.check the Symantec Enterprise Support website
Answer:A B E

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NO.5 Which types of monitoring can be performed on Oracle resources? (Choose two.)
A.detail monitoring
B.basic level monitoring
C.kernel level monitoring
D.specific monitoring
E.service monitoring
Answer:A B

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NO.6 Which directive in the llttab file defines a network interface for a heartbeat?
A.nic
B.link
C.heartbeat
D.hbdev
Answer:B

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NO.7 During a test of a NIC resource the VCS engine log indicates that the service group and the IP resource
enter the FAULTED state on all systems in the cluster. The NIC resource enters the ONLINE state after
the root cause of the fault is corrected. Which default attribute setting allows the service group to attempt
to start without manual intervention?
A.AutoStart
B.AutoClear
C.AutoRestart
D.AutoFailover
Answer:C

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NO.8 What is the default level of authorization of a new VCS user?
A.Cluster Administrator
B.Cluster Operator
C.Cluster Guest
D.Group Administrator
E.Group Operator
Answer:C

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NO.9 Which resource type attributes can be set in order to tune VCS failover characteristics? (Choose two.)
A.AutoStart
B.ConfInterval
C.ConfTimeout
D.MonitorInterval
E.OfflineMonitorInterval
Answer:B D

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NO.10 Which statement is true about the violation trigger?
A.A violation trigger must be written as a shell script.
B.A violation trigger and notification are mutually exclusive.
C.A violation trigger is dependent on notification to work.
D.A violation trigger is automatically executed when events occur.
Answer:D

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NO.11 Under which condition can a service group be AutoDisabled?
A.when hashadow cannot restart HAD on a system
B.when the system is in a jeopardy membership
C.when a firm service group dependency exists between two service groups and the parent service group
fails
D.when a firm service group dependency exists between two service groups and the child service group
fails
Answer:A

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NO.12 Which resource type attributes can be set in order to tune VCS failover characteristics? (Choose two.)
A.Flags
B.RestartLimit
C.ToleranceLimit
D.OfflineTimeout
E.OfflineMonitorInterval
Answer:B C

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NO.13 Which components are installed when you execute the installvcs script? (Choose two.)
A.bundled agents
B.database agents
C.cluster file system
D.GAB driver
E.cluster volume manager
Answer:A D

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NO.14 Which VCS resource attribute setting prevents VCS from interpreting a Monitor entry point timeout as a
resource fault?
A.MonitorFault=0
B.MonitorFaultTimeout=240
C.FaultMonitor=240
D.FaultOnMonitor=4
Answer:D

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NO.15 Which text files are created at the end of a successful run of installvcs -installonly? (Choose three.)
A.log
B.response
C.gabtab
D.llttab
E.summary
Answer:A B E

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NO.16 You are adding a system to a running cluster. You have successfully performed these steps on the
system that you are adding: 1. installed, configured, and tested all application resources required 2.
installed VCS 3. configured and started VCS communications (LLT and GAB) What is the next step that
you perform?
A.update the resource attributes to enable resources to run on the new system
B.update the service group attributes to enable groups to run on the new system
C.change the cluster attribute for VCS user names to match accounts on the new system
D.change the owner of the system attributes so that all cluster systems are the same
Answer:B

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NO.17 You are installing a VCS upgrade that does not require a system reboot, but does require a VCS
restart. Which method maximizes user access to the clustered applications during the upgrade?
A.use the VCS rolling upgrade option which restarts VCS transparently
B.stop VCS using the orce option and then restart VCS on each system
C.evacuate service groups while upgrading one system at a time
D.stop VCS using the all option and then restart VCS on each system
Answer:B

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NO.18 Which feature of VCS can prevent overloading of a system's resources in the event of service group
failover?
A.Parallel Service Groups
B.Capacities
C.Limits
D.Load Failover Policy
Answer:C

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NO.19 Which procedure must be followed to remove the resource type TypeA from an active VCS cluster?
A.remove all resources of TypeA, remove TypeA, and remove TypeA packages
B.remove TypeA, then execute the hatype esync command
C.stop VCS, remove all resources of TypeA, and start VCS
D.execute the hatype -remove command which will remove all the resources
Answer:A

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NO.20 VCS is to be installed in a secure environment where remote installation between systems is
impossible. The VCS configuration parameters were captured in a file using the installation script on the
first system. What can be used to read the contents of the configuration file when executing locally on the
remaining systems?
A.-autoconfig
B.-configfile
C.-vcsconfig
D.-responsefile
Answer:D

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Exam Code: ST0-052
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 158 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What are three consequences of doing only full backups? (Select three.)
A. only allows full restores
B. redundant backups
C. takes more time
D. requires more media
Answer: BCD

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NO.2 When does a media's overwrite protection period begin?
A. at the time of the last write to the media
B. when the media is allocated to the media set
C. at the time of the first write to the media
D. when the media is ejected from the drive
Answer: A

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NO.3 Where can you find a list of all the media that is required for a restore job?
A. All Media node
B. media set
C. Reports tab
D. media vault
Answer: C

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NO.4 How do you back up data residing on a network share that is not visible in the backup selections?
A. change the security of the network share to "full control"
B. add the UNC path in user-defined selections
C. install the Network Share Publishing Agent
D. install the NDMP option on the computer hosting the network share
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are three supported processor types for installing/running Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select
three.)
A. AMD
B. Itanium
C. Pentium
D. Xeon
Answer: ACD

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NO.6 Which three options are available for Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select three.)
A. Backup Exec SAN Media Server Option
B. Backup Exec System Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec Inline Tape Copy Option
D. Backup Exec Desktop Laptop Option
E. Backup Exec Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
Answer: BDE

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NO.7 With which two backup methods can the option "use the Microsoft Change Journal if available" be
used? (Select two.)
A. archive
B. incremental
C. differential
D. working set
Answer: BC

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NO.8 Which statement is true about performing a granular restore of an Active Directory object to a Windows
2008 Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC)?
A. Granular restores of individual objects to the RODC are NOT allowed.
B. The Windows Active Directory service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
C. The individual object must first be restored to the Windows Active Directory Lightweight Directory
Service (Ad LDS).
D. The Windows VSS service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are three features of the Central Admin Server Option (CASO)? (Select three.)
A. distributed catalogs
B. administration of NetWare media server
C. load balancing across media servers
D. management of other central administration servers
E. centralized catalogs
Answer: ACE

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NO.10 If you use Symantec Backup Exec 12 to remove media from a device or slot, which location displays
the media?
A. online media
B. offline media
C. user-defined media vault
D. Scratch media set
Answer: B

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NO.11 What are three advantages of using the working set backup method? (Select three.)
A. requires fewer media to restore
B. requires less time to perform than a full backup
C. includes data that have been accessed in a specific number of days
D. provides a current backup of the entire system in one backup set
Answer: ABC

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NO.12 What is a benefit of using preallocation in a backup-to-disk folder?
A. reduces file fragmentation
B. assigns media to backup jobs
C. assigns a backup-to-disk folder to a duplication job
D. prevents a job from running low on disk space
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which type of backup is used for an online database?
A. snapshot
B. flat
C. active
D. cold
Answer: A

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NO.14 What are three types of templates? (Select three.)
A. Duplicate Backup Sets template
B. Export Media template
C. Synthetic Backup template
D. Erase Media template
E. Import Media template
Answer: ABC

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NO.15 Which two periods must be defined when creating a Symantec Backup Exec 12 media set?
A. append and overwrite protection periods
B. system and overwrite protection periods
C. retention and overwrite protection periods
D. append and retention periods
Answer: A

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NO.16 What are three functions that the Symantec Backup Exec 12 media server performs? (Select three.)
A. controls and manages backup and restore operations
B. controls authentication and access to the SAN disk storage
C. maintains the Backup Exec 12 database
D. attaches to and controls storage device hardware
Answer: ACD

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NO.17 Which option or agent was enhanced to support Windows Server 2008 Read Only Domain Controllers
(RODC)?
A. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
B. Agent for Microsoft SharePoint
C. Active Directory Recovery Agent
D. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 Agent/Option is necessary for encrypting a backup?
A. Advanced Device and Media Management (ADAMM)
B. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
C. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
D. Remote Agent for Windows Systems (RAWS)
Answer: D

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NO.19 What are two characteristics of the default media set named <span style="font-style: italic;">"Keep
Data Infinitely - Do Not Allow Overwrite"? (Select two.)
A. applies to all backup jobs until you create another media set
B. allows data to be appended to media for 90 days
C. cannot change the defaults for this media set
D. requires continuous introduction of Scratch Media unless you change the defaults
Answer: AD

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NO.20 If the overwrite protection period is current, when can media be overwritten? (Select three.)
A. when the overwrite protection level is set to None
B. when the media is erased, formatted, or labeled
C. when the media is associated with the Scratch media set
D. when the append period is expired
Answer: ABC

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NO.21 Which database component is installed with Symantec Backup Exec 12?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 7
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 (SP-3a)
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express Edition
Answer: D

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NO.22 What do backup-to-disk folders provide? (Select three.)
A. faster method to back up and restore data
B. concurrent jobs to the same backup-to-disk folder
C. encryption when using Granular Recovery Technology
D. backup-to-disk with scheduled duplication to tape
Answer: ABD

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NO.23 Which backup method should you use to back up only the files that were changed today?
A. full
B. working set
C. archive
D. differential
Answer: B

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NO.24 You need to restore data from a family of three tapes. The first tape is missing.
Which option should you change to allow the remaining tapes to be cataloged?
A. "Request all media in the sequence for catalog operations"
B. "Use storage media-based catalogs"
C. "Enable direct access recovery"
D. "Associate media with 'Imported Media' media set"
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which two backup methods can reset the archive bit on files? (Select two.)
A. working set
B. differential
C. full
D. incremental
Answer: CD

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NO.26 Which statement is true about removable backup-to-disk folders?
A. They can exist on tape or disk media.
B. They can span multiple media.
C. Performance is significantly enhanced.
D. Only USB is supported.
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which three security attributes does Symantec Backup Exec 12 designate for its service account or an
existing user account during installation? (Select three.)
A. domain administrator
B. backup operator
C. create a token object
D. administrative network
E. event viewer operator
Answer: ABC

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NO.28 Which two actions can you perform on a selection list when running in a Central Admin Server Option
(CASO) environment? (Select two.)
A. restrict backup to specific devices on media servers
B. restrict which users can run restore jobs
C. restrict backup to media servers in a pool
D. restrict which media servers can run duplicate jobs
Answer: AC

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NO.29 Which components make up the basic Symantec Backup Exec 12 installation?
A. Central Administration Server (CAS), media server, storage devices, and media
B. media server, Administration Console, domain controller, and clients
C. Central Administration Server (CAS), Administration Console, storage controllers, and media
D. media server, Administration Console, storage devices, and clients
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which three properties can you configure when creating a media set? (Select three.)
A. overwrite protection periods
B. media vault rules
C. bar code rules
D. append periods
Answer: ABD

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Exam Code: ST0-079
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which two tasks are performed by the SMTP session component of the MTA? (Select two.)
A.It verifies the IP address reputation with the BMServer.
B.It performs aliasing/masquerading for messages.
C.It reports the message as spam.
D.It applies the specified queue thresholds.
E.It interacts with the BMServer to access the filtering modules.
ANSWER: BD

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NO.2 What happens to a message that is forwarded to the Suspect Virus Quarantine?
A.It is automatically deleted after one week.
B.It is rescanned when the configured hold time has elapsed.
C.It is placed in the administrator's queue for review.
D.It is forwarded to Symantec Security Response.
ANSWER: B

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NO.3 What is the recommended hard-drive size for a scanner-only virtual machine?
A.60GB
B.80GB
C.100GB
D.160GB
ANSWER: A

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NO.4 In addition to storing messages for Spam Quarantine and Suspect Virus Quarantine, which type of
messages can the Control Center store?
A.notification messages
B.compliance triggered messages
C.delivered messages
D.deleted messages
ANSWER: B

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NO.5 What are two parts of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A.Message Store
B.LDAP Sync Service
C.Brightmail Engine
D.LiveUpdate Conduit
E.Suspect Virus Quarantine
ANSWER: BE

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NO.6 True file typing is a feature used to combat which behavior?
A.spamming
B.renaming
C.phishing
D.spimming
ANSWER: B

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NO.7 Spam Rule sets are automatically downloaded from Symantec on a regular basis.
How often are these rule sets refreshed?
A.every 5 to 10 minutes
B.every 30 to 60 minutes
C.every 3 to 5 hours
D.every day
ANSWER: A

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NO.8 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A.It provides message management services.
B.It routes messages for delivery.
C.It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D.It downloads virus definitions.
E.It runs filters.
ANSWER: AC

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NO.9 A client needs to import structured customer data.
Which resource is used for this requirement?
A.records
B.dictionaries
C.regular expressions
D.patterns
ANSWER: A

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NO.10 Which feature requires Invalid Recipient Handling to be enabled?
A.Bounce Attack Prevention
B.Directory Harvest Attack recognition
C.Reputation Lookup
D.Fastpass
ANSWER: B

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NO.11 To reach Message Audit logs, which tab should be selected in the Brightmail Control Center?
A.Status
B.Administration
C.Reports
D.Compliance
ANSWER: A

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NO.12 Which service retrieves new and updated email filters from Symantec Security Response through
HTTPS file transfer?
A.LiveUpdate
B.Conduit
C.Brightmail Engine
D.MTA
ANSWER: B

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NO.13 Which MTA operation is used if incoming messages need to be stopped while waiting for new virus
definitions?
A.Accept and deliver messages normally
B.Pause message scanning and delivery
C.Do not accept incoming messages
D.Accept but do not scan incoming messages
ANSWER: B

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NO.14 What is the minimum required memory size for virtual machine deployments?
A.1GB
B.2GB
C.4GB
D.6GB
ANSWER: B

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NO.15 An administrator has navigated through Status -> LDAP Synchronization.
Which tab will display details about an LDAP Synchronization?
A.LDAP to Scanners
B.LDAP to CC
C.LDAP Status
D.CC to LDAP
ANSWER: B

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NO.16 What is the Heuristic Detection (Bloodhound) feature designed to detect?
A.unknown viruses
B.fuzzy matches against compliance rules
C.regex matches
D.Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
ANSWER: B

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NO.17 Which two email authentication technologies are included in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0?
(Select two.)
A.Sender ID
B.POP before SMTP
C.Domain Keys Identified Mail (DKIM)
D.Certified Email
E.Sender Policy Framework (SPF)
ANSWER: AE

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NO.18 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A.Accept and deliver messages normally
B.Pause message scanning and delivery
C.Do not accept incoming messages
D.Accept but do not scan incoming messages
ANSWER: C

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NO.19 Which feature of Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 detects Non-Delivery Reports (NDR) created by an
attacker?
A.Directory Harvest Attack
B.Anti-Phishing Filter
C.Bounce Attack Prevention
D.Symantec Probe Network
ANSWER: C

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NO.20 What does the Fastpass feature do?
A.skips virus scanning for known viruses
B.skips resource intensive spam scanning steps
C.passes incoming mail directly to the downstream MTA
D.bypasses scanning on outgoing mail
ANSWER: B

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Exam Code: ST0-067
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which three functions are provided by Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. provides the ability to attest to procedural controls
B. uses automated agentless or agent-based capabilities to audit and scan technical controls
C. verifies and confirms risk and posture compliance assessment
D. produces evidence of due care in an IT audit process
E. integrates the remediation process
Answer: ABD

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NO.2 Which three are components of the Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. web portal
B. Evidence database
C. ESM database
D. Cognos
E. application server
Answer: ABE

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NO.3 Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 component is responsible for routing data collection,
evaluation, and reporting jobs?
A. application server
B. collector
C. load balancer
D. Management Service
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the minimum number of computers required to configure each Data Processing Service role?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which four bv-Control platforms are supported in Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 Standards?
(Select four.)
A. Oracle
B. Windows
C. UNIX
D. Exchange
E. SQL
F. NetWare
Answer: ABCE

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NO.6 Which term refers to organizational rules or requirements that provide guidance to employees?
A. framework
B. standard
C. policy
D. benchmark
E. regulation
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which term refers to rules created by a government in response to legislation?
A. framework
B. standard
C. policy
D. benchmark
E. regulation
Answer: E

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NO.8 In the context of IT compliance, what are standards?
A. a set of generally accepted best practices
B. a protector against a specific risk or threat
C. statements of goals and objectives
D. a collection of methods to evaluate compliance efforts
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 component is responsible for most inter-component
transactions?
A. Directory Support Service
B. Data Processing Service
C. Information Server Service
D. Application Server Service
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two benefits does the Policy Module provide? (Select two.)
A. determines coverage gaps for multiple, overlapped regulatory, industry-specific, or best practices
frameworks
B. lowers the cost of policy creation and maintenance and measures policy knowledge and retention
C. defines, reviews, and disseminates written policies to end users as mapped to specific measurable
controls
D. integrates the policy compliance process with existing asset management systems
E. identifies problems within policies or internal controls and prevents policy compliance failure or data
breach
Answer: AC

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NO.11 Which information is displayed in the Monitor View?
A. jobs and reports
B. jobs and evaluation results
C. tasks and reports
D. data collections and evaluation results
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which databases are created by Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 Reporting and Analytics
during installation?
A. Production, Reporting, Evidence
B. bv, Compliance Manager, Policy Manager
C. Dashboard, Reporting, SMC
D. Evidence, Standards, Policies
Answer: A

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NO.13 When does the RMS Console Configuration Wizard appear? (Select two.)
A. every time a new license has been added
B. the first time that a user opens the console after the installation or the upgrade
C. after a new Credential database has been applied to the user
D. after a bv-Control snap-in installation on the console computer
E. after the user has changed their default information server
Answer: BD

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NO.14 Communications between Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 (CCS 9.0) components rely on a
signed digital certificate.
What is the root certificate authority in the CCS 9.0 environment?
A. Microsoft Certificate Authority Server
B. Certificate Management Console Server
C. CCS Management Service
D. Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two are modules of Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select two.)
A. Standards
B. bv-Control
C. ESM
D. Internet Security
E. Entitlements
Answer: AE

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NO.16 A user-defined report template is created from a predefined report template.
When a user-defined report template is deleted, what happens to the predefined report template?
A. The predefined template is also deleted.
B. The predefined template is automatically updated with the latest changes.
C. The predefined template is unaffected.
D. The predefined template reverts to the original template.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What needs to be configured in order to collect common fields during a asset import using the default
data collector?
A. ESM data collector
B. CSV data collector
C. Automatic Entitlements Import job
D. a policy with associated assets
Answer: B

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NO.18 Data can be collected using which two data collectors in Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0?
(Select two.)
A. ESM
B. XML
C. ODBC
D. CSV
E. AS400
Answer: AD

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NO.19 Which three database maintenance tasks must be performed outside of Symantec Control Compliance
Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. purge evidence
B. back up the databases
C. purge stale data
D. shrink the databases
E. defragment the databases
Answer: BDE

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NO.20 In Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0, if an administrator wants to evaluate assets compared to a
referenced asset, what is used?
A. reference evaluation
B. baseline standard
C. gold standard
D. policy mapping
Answer: C

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2014年2月23日星期日

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Exam Code: ASC-090
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC IT Compliance 2010)
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Total Q&A: 137 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 In Control Compliance Suite (CCS) Reporting and Analytics, where do administrators add content for
new regulations not already included?
A. from the CCS Console, in "Manage > Polices" select "New Regulation"
B. in Content Studio, choose "Mandates", right-click, and then choose "New Regulation"
C. New regulations cannot be added to Reporting and Analytics.
D. from a SQL script, write an INSERT statement to create the new content on the SQL Database Server
Answer: B

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NO.2 A company reports that Windows Data Collection jobs using the RMS data collector never complete.
UNIX Data Collection jobs complete normally. The administrator suspects that one of the Slave Query
Engines might be failing to respond. Which troubleshooting step should be used to determine which Slave
Query Engine might be hanging?
A. from the RMS Console, log in under the Data Processor Service Account, and check the "Task Status"
screen
B. on the Information server, review the Application log
C. in bv-Config, check the "Query Engine Diagnostics- Master" for Slave Query Engine job statuses
D. in the Control Compliance Suite Console, on the Settings > System Topology Menu, Choose "Monitor
System Jobs"
Answer: C

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NO.3 A Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) administrator has written a simple Perl script to
convert HEX format to a dotted decimal number to aid forensic analysis of attack packets recorded by the
Network Intrusion Detection system. They have used this script in a user action. However, the user action
is failing. What is the problem?
A. Only shell scripts are supported for custom user actions.
B. Perl interpreter is not installed on the Archive Server.
C. Only Java scripts are supported for custom user action.
D. Perl interpreter is not installed on the SSIM client machine.
Answer: D

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NO.4 An administrator sees the following in the agent log: ERROR [Logging]
com.symantec.management.security. HostnameVerificationFailureException SESA Agent
Symc_ConfigProvider: Failed to bootstrap to primary management server https: What are two reasons for
this? (Select two.)
A. The name resolution is not working.
B. Agent failed to download the SSL certificate.
C. There is a hostname mismatch with the SSL certificate.
D. Another host with same hostname is already registered.
E. Bootstrapping is disabled on the Information Manager.
Answer: A, E

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NO.5 A company is receiving "disk full" errors on the volume hosting the RMS Information server database.
They are running native RMS queries and saving the historical reports. What is the process for deleting
outdated RMS historical data sets?
A. from the Control Compliance Suite Console, under the System > General > Data Purge menu,
configure the Purge Settings to run a data purge job
B. from the RMS console, run an RMS Query using the "Show Advanced Data Sources" option, and use
Active Admin to delete historical data
C. on the Information server, stop the BVProcessManager Service, then stop and restart the SQL Server
Service, then restart the BVProcessManager Service
D. on the Information server, stop all RMS Services, and then use the Microsoft command-line tool
"OSQL.EXE" to purge the "QUERY_RESULTS" table
Answer: B

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