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Exam Code: 1Z0-043
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle database 10g:Administration ii)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 186 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 You lost the PRODSTD tablespace, which was read/write. The tablespace was read-only when the last
backup was performed. How would you recover the tablespace?
A.restore the tablespace from the backup; there is no need to apply the redo information
B.restore the full database to recover the data up to the point when you performed the backup
C.restore the tablespace from the backup and then perform a recovery using the backup control file
D.restore the tablespace from the backup and then recover the tablespace; all the redo information from
the point when the tablespace was made read/write is applied
Answer: D

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NO.2 You executed the following query:
SELECT operation, undo_sql, table_name
FROM flashback_transaction_query
Which statement is correct regarding the query output?
A.It would return information regarding only the last committed transaction.
B.It would return only the active transactions in all the undo segments in the database.
C.It would return only the committed transactions in all the undo segments in the database.
D.It would return both active and committed transactions in all the undo segments in the database.
E.It would return information regarding the transactions that began and were committed in the last 30
minutes.
Answer: D

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NO.3 View the Exhibit.
You executed the following command to perform a backup of the USERS tablespace:
RMAN>BACKUP TABLESPACE USERS;
Which type of backup would this command perform?
Exhibit:
A.backup set
B.image copy
C.incremental backup
D.None; the user receives on error indicating that the backup must be specified.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In your database, online redo log files are multiplexed and one of the members in a group is lost due to
media failure? How would you recover the lost redo log member?
A.import the database from the last export
B.restore all the members in the group from the last backup
C.drop the lost member from the database and then add a new member to the group
D.restore all the database files from the backup and then perform a complete recovery
E.restore all the database files from the backup and then perform an incomplete recovery
Answer: C

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NO.5 The current time zone for one of the user sessions is set to the database local time zone. For one
application, the user session requires the time zone to be set to the local operating system time zone
without affecting other user sessions.
Which two solutions could the user implement to achieve this objective? (Choose two.)
A.use the ALTER SYSTEM command to change the time zone
B.use the ALTER SESSION command to change the time zone
C.use the ALTER DATABASE command to change the time zone
D.set the value for the operating system variable ORA_SDTZ on the client machine
E.set the value for the operating system variable ORA_SDTZ on the database server machine
Answer: BD

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NO.6 You are using Oracle Database 10g. Which statement regarding an incomplete recovery is true?
A.You do not need to restore all the data files.
B.You do not need to open the database with the RESETLOGS operation
C.You do not need to perform a full backup after the RESETLOGS operation.
D.You do not need to recover all the data files to the same system change number (SCN).
Answer: C

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NO.7 The current time is 12:00 noon. You want to recover the USERS tablespace from a failure that
occurred at 11:50 a.m.You discover that the only member of an unarchived redo log group containing
information from 11:40 a.m. onwards is corrupt.
With reference to this scenario, if you are not using Recovery Manager (RMAN), which recovery method
would you use?
A.time-based recovery
B.log sequence recovery
C.cancel-based recovery
D.change-based recovery
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are performing a block media recovery on the tools01.dbf data file in the SALES database using
RMAN. Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A.You must ensure that the SALES database is mounted or open.
B.You must restore a backup control file to perform a block media recovery.
C.You must take the tools01.dbf data file offline before you start a block media recovery.
D.You must put the database in NOARCHIVELOG mode to perform a block media recovery.
E.You can perform only a complete media recovery of individual blocks, point-in-time recovery of
individual data blocks is not supported.
Answer: AE

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NO.9 Immediately after adding a new disk to or removing an existing disk from an Automatic Storage
Management (ASM) instance, you find that the performance of the database decreases initially, until the
addition or removal process is completed. Performance then gradually returns to normal levels.
Which two activities could you perform to maintain a consistent performance of the database while adding
or removing disks? (Choose two.)
A.increase the number of checkpoint processes
B.define the POWER option while adding or removing the disks
C.increase the number of DBWR processes by setting up a higher value for DB_WRITER_PROCESSES
D.increase the number of slave database writer processes by setting up a higher value for
DBWR_IO_SLAVES
E.increase the number of ASM Rebalance processes by setting up a higher value for
ASM_POWER_LIMIT during the disk addition or removal
Answer: BE

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NO.10 You work as a database administrator at certkiller.com. Your database is open and running in
ARCHIVELOG mode. You take RMAN full backups every Sunday night. On Monday morning, while
querying the user1.employees table, you receive the following error message:
01578. ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 5, block # 51)
ORA-01110: data file 5: '/u01/app/oracle/oradata/orcl/example01.dbf'
You need to rectify the corruption while ensuring the following:
The data file should remain online.
The mean time to recover (MTTR) should be minimal.
You are not using a backup control file and all the archived logs are accessible. Which option would you
choose?
A.flash back the corrupted blocks
B.use the DBMS_REPAIR package
C.use the RMAN TSPITR command
D.use the RMAN BLOCKRECOVER command
E.use the RESTORE DATABASEand RECOVER DATABASE commands
F.investigate the time at which the corruption occurred and perform a point-in-time recovery
Answer: D

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NO.11 You are working on an Oracle Database 10g database. You enabled the Flashback Database feature.
Which two statements regarding flashback logs are true? (Choose two.)
A.Flashback logs are not archived.
B.Flashback logs are maintained in redo log files.
C.Flashback logs are maintained in the Flash Recovery Area.
D.Flashback logs are used to maintain Flashback Database related errors.
E.Flashback logs need to be cleared manually after you disable Flashback Database.
Answer: AC

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NO.12 You are using an Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance to manage the files of your
production database. You have two disk groups, DG1 and DG2 with one device each.
In the parameter file of the production database, the following parameters have been specified:
DB_CREATE_ONLINE_LOG_DEST_1 = '+dg1'
DB_CREATE_ONLINE_LOG_DEST_2 = '+dg2'
What would be the impact of this setting?
A.When a new log group is added, it would have one member in each disk group.
B.When a new log group is added, it would have two members in each disk group.
C.When a new tablespace is added, it would have one data file in each disk group.
D.When a new log file is added, it would have one member spread across the disk groups.
Answer: A

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NO.13 You work as a database administrator at certkiller.com. In your production database there is a job,
CALC_STAT, which has been scheduled to run every Friday at 5.00 p.m.CALC_STAT updates the
optimizer statistics for the objects owned by the APPS schema. You want the task to be generic, thereby
allowing users to modify the attributes of the task at run time without affecting the original task.
Which component of Oracle Scheduler must you define to achieve this?
A.Window
B.Program
C.Job class
D.Window group
Answer: B

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NO.14 View the Exhibit and examine the Resource Manager settings for the groups at different levels.
Which two effects would be the result of this setting? (Choose two.)
Exhibit:
A.The members of LOW_GROUP would get more priority than those of OTHER_GROUPS.
B.The members of SYS_GROUP would get most of the CPU allocation at level 1.
C.The members of LOW_GROUP would get most of the CPU allocation because it has CPU allocation at
two different levels.
D.The members of LOW_GROUP would get no CPU allocation at level1 if the members of
OTHER_GROUPS are using all the CPU at level 2.
E.The members of SYS_GROUP would get no CPU allocation at level 1 if the members of
OTHER_GROUPS are using all the CPU at level 2.
Answer: AB

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NO.15 An RMAN backup job fails, displaying the following error:
ORA-19809: limit exceeded for recovery files
Your analysis shows that the Flash Recovery area is full. Which two actions could you take to resolve the
error and avoid this error in the future? (Choose two.)
A.take the backup of the flash recovery area less frequently
B.increase the value of the UNDO_RETENTION initialization parameter
C.change the value of the WORKAREA_SIZE_POLICY initialization parameter to AUTO
D.change the backup retention policy to retain the backups for a smaller period of time
E.increase the value of the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE initialization parameter
F.increase the value of the CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME initialization parameter
Answer: DE

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NO.16 Consider the following configuration:
/devices/D1 is a member of disk group dgroupA.
/devices/D2 is a member of disk group dgroupA.
/devices/D3 is a member of disk group dgroupA.
You plan to add a new disk,/devices/D4 to the disk group dgroupA.
You execute the following command:
SQL> ALTER DISKGROUP dgroupA ADD DISK '/devices/D*';
Which task would be accomplished by the command?
A.The command adds the new disk, D4, to the disk group.
B.The command would result in an error because the is no disk by the name "'/devices/D*'"
C.The command will be ignored because disks starting with "D" are already members of the disk group.
D.The command would result in an error because no wildcard characters can be used in the disk name.
E.The command first detaches all the member disks starting with "D", and the reattaches them including
the new disk.
Answer: A

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NO.17 One of the tablespaces is read-only in your database. The loss of all control files forced you to re-create
the control file.
Which operation do you need to perform after re-creating the control file and opening the database?
A.drop and re-create the read-only tablespaces
B.rename the read-only data files to their correct file names
C.change the tablespace status from read/write to read-only
D.re-create the read-only tablespace because it is automatically removed
Answer: B

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NO.18 View the Exhibit.
In your production database, the total waits and the time waited for log file parallel write are significantly
high. While investigating the reason, you find that there are three redo log groups with two members in
each group, and all redo log members are places on a single physical disk.
What action would you take to minimize the waits?
Exhibit:
A.start the log writer slave processes
B.increase the number of redo log files
C.increase the size of the redo log buffer
D.place the redo log files on the different disks
E.increase the number of log writer processes
Answer: D

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NO.19 You have set some of the initialization parameters as:
DB_BLOCK_SIZE = 8KB
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 2GB
SGA_TARGET = 0
SHARED_POOL_SIZE = 120MB
DB_CACHE_SIZE = 896MB
STREAM_POOL_SIZE = 0
LARGE_POOL_SIZE = 110 MB
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A.You cannot set a value for the DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE parameter.
B.If you increase the size of the large pool to 120 MB, then the memory allocated to the shared pool will
be reduced to 110 MB.
C.If the value for SGA_TARGET is changed to 1 GB and SHARED_POOL_SIZE is set to 120 MB, then
memory cannot be taken from the shared pool, even if the shared pool has free space available.
D.If an application attempts to allocate more than 120 MB from the shared pool and free space is
available in the buffer pool, then the free space from the buffer pool is allocated to the shared pool.
Answer: AC

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NO.20 You observe that a database performance has degraded over a period of time. While investigating the
reason, you find that the size of the database buffer cache is not large enough to cache all the needed
data blocks.
Which advisory component would you refer to, in order to determine that required size of the database
buffer cache?
A.Memory Advisor
B.Segment Advisor
C.SQL Tuning Advisor
D.SQL Access Advisor
E.Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z1-050
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: New Features for Administrators)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 183 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which two statements are true regarding the starting of the database instance using the following
command? (Choose two.)
SQL>STARTUP UPGRADE
A.It enables all system triggers.
B.It allows only SYSDBA connections.
C.It ensures that all job queues remain active during the upgrade process.
D.It sets system initialization parameters to specific values that are required to enable database upgrade
scripts to be run.
Answer: BD

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NO.2 You installed Oracle Database 11g and are performing a manual upgrade of the Oracle9i database.
As a part of the upgrade process, you execute the following script:
SQL>@utlu111i.sql
Which statement about the execution of this script is true?
A.It must be executed from the Oracle Database 11g environment.
B.It must be executed only after the SYSAUX tablespace has been created.
C.It must be executed from the environment of the database that is being upgraded.
D.It must be executed only after AUTOEXTEND is set to ON for all existing tablespaces.
E.It must be executed from both the Oracle Database 11g and Oracle Database 9i environments.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which steps are mandatory to enable Direct NFS?
A.2 and 3
B.1 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1, 2 and 3
Answer: B

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NO.4 Identify two situations in which you can use Data Recovery Advisor for recovery. (Choose two.)
A.The database files are corrupted when the database is open.
B.The archived log files are missing for which backup is not available.
C.The user has dropped an important table that needs to be recovered.
D.You are not able to start up the database instance because the required database files are missing.
Answer: AD

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NO.5 What are the recommendations for Oracle Database 11g installation to make it Optimal Flexible
Architecture (OFA)-compliant? (Choose all that apply.)
A.ORACLE_BASE should be set explicitly.
B.An Oracle base should have only one Oracle home created in it.
C.Flash recovery area and data file location should be on separate disks.
D.Flash recovery area and data file location should be created under Oracle base in a non-Automatic
Storage Management (ASM) setup.
Answer: ACD

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NO.6 You are managing an Oracle 11g database with ASM storage, for which the COMPATIBLE initialization
parameter is set to 11.1.0. In the ASM instance, the COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute for the disk group is
set to 10.2 and the COMPATIBLE.ASM attribute is set to 11.1.
Which two statements are true in this scenario for the features enabled for ASM? (Choose two.)
A.The ASM-preferred mirror read feature is enabled.
B.The ASM supports variable sizes for extents of 1, 8, and 64 allocation units.
C.The ASM disk is dropped immediately from a disk group when it becomes unavailable.
D.The RDBMS always reads the primary copy of a mirrored extent of the ASM disk group.
Answer: AB

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NO.7 Your organization decided to upgrade the existing Oracle 10g database to Oracle 11g database in a
multiprocessor environment. At the end of the upgrade, you observe that the DBA executes the following
script:
SQL> @utlrp.sql
What is the significance of executing this script?
A.It performs parallel recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
B.It performs sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
C.It performs parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
D.It performs sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
Answer: C

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NO.8 During the installation of Oracle Database 11g, you do not set ORACLE_BASE explicitly. You selected
the option to create a database as part of the installation. How would this environment variable setting
affect the installation?
A.The installation terminates with an error.
B.The installation proceeds with the default value without warnings and errors.
C.The installation proceeds with the default value but it would not be an OFA-compliant database.
D.The installation proceeds with the default value but a message would be generated in the alert log file.
Answer: D

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NO.9 In which two aspects does hot patching differ from conventional patching? (Choose two.)
A.It consumes more memory compared with conventional patching.
B.It can be installed and uninstalled via OPatch unlike conventional patching.
C.It takes more time to install or uninstall compared with conventional patching.
D.It does not require down time to apply or remove unlike conventional patching.
E.It is not persistent across instance startup and shutdown unlike conventional patching.
Answer: AD

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NO.10 Which two statements about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS) are true? (Choose two.)
A.It bypasses the OS file system cache.
B.A separate NFS interface is required for use across Linux, UNIX, and Windows platforms.
C.It uses the operating system kernel NFS layer for user tasks and network communication modules.
D.File systems need not be mounted by the kernel NFS system when being served through Direct NFS.
E.Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating system kernel NFS
driver.
Answer: AE

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NO.11 Which two statements are true with respect to the maintenance window? (Choose two.)
A.A DBA can enable or disable an individual task in all maintenance windows.
B.A DBA cannot change the duration of the maintenance window after it is created.
C.In case of a long maintenance window, all Automated Maintenance Tasks are restarted every four
hours.
D.A DBA can control the percentage of the resource allocated to the Automated Maintenance Tasks in
each window.
Answer: AD

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NO.12 Which two are the prerequisites to enable Flashback Data Archive? (Choose two.)
A.Undo retention guarantee must be enabled.
B.Database must be running in archivelog mode.
C.Automatic undo management must be enabled.
D.The tablespace on which the Flashback Data Archive is created must be managed with Automatic
Segment Space Management (ASSM).
Answer: CD

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NO.13 You opened the encryption wallet and then issued the following command:
Then you closed the wallet. Later, you issued the following command to create the EMPLOYEES table in
the SECURESPACE tablespace and you use the NO SALT option for the EMPID column.
What is the outcome?
A.It creates the table and encrypts the data in it.
B.It generates an error because the wallet is closed.
C.It creates the table but does not encrypt the data in it.
D.It generates an error because the NO SALT option cannot be used with the ENCRYPT option.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which dependent object will get invalidated even if it is not affected by the table redefinition?
A.views
B.triggers
C.packages
D.synonyms
Answer: B

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NO.15 Examine the following PL/SQL block:
Which statement describes the effect of the execution of the above PL/SQL block?
A.The plan baselines are verified with the SQL profiles.
B.All fixed plan baselines are converted into nonfixed plan baselines.
C.All the nonaccepted SQL profiles are accepted into the plan baseline.
D.The nonaccepted plans in the SQL Management Base are verified with the existing plan baselines.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two statements are true regarding hot patching? (Choose two.)
A.It requires relinking of the Oracle binary.
B.It does not require database instance shutdown.
C.It can detect conflicts between two online patches.
D.It is available for installing all patches on all platforms.
E.It works only in a single database instance environment.
Answer: BC

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NO.17 Following is the list of locations in random order where oranfstab can be placed.
What is the sequence in which Direct NFS will search the locations?
A.1, 2, 3
B.3, 2, 1
C.2, 3, 1
D.1, 3, 2
Answer: C

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NO.18 You decided to use Direct NFS configuration in a non-RAC Oracle installation and created the
oranfstab file in /etc.
Which two statements are true regarding this oranfstab file? (Choose two.)
A.Its entries are specific to a single database.
B.It contains file systems that have been mounted by Direct NFS.
C.It is globally available to all Oracle 11g databases on the machine.
D.It contains file systems that have been mounted by the kernel NFS system.
Answer: CD

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NO.19 You are managing the APPPROD database as a DBA. You plan to duplicate this database in the same
system with the name DUPDB.
You issued the following RMAN commands to create a duplicate database:
Which three are the prerequisites for the successful execution of the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The source database should be open.
B.The target database should be in ARCHIVELOG mode if it is open.
C.RMAN should be connected to both the instances as SYSDBA.
D.The target database backups should be copied to the source database backup directories.
E.The password file must exist for the source database and have the same SYS user password as the
target.
Answer: BCE

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A.SQL statements that are part of the AWR baseline only
B.SQL statements based on the AWR top SQL identification
C.SQL statements that are part of the available SQL Tuning Set (STS) only
D.SQL statements that are available in the cursor cache and executed by a user other than SYS
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1Z0-605
Exam Name: Oracle (Siebel7.7 Business Analyst Core Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 If hyperlinks in Siebel Tools do not appear, what might the problem be?
A. The Drilldown Add-in has not been installed
B. The Web update protection key is invalid
C. Tools is not properly connected to the datasource
D. You do not have the Developer responsibility
Answer: D

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NO.2 Based on the About View screen shown below, what is the parent business component on the
Accounts screen?
A. Contact
B. Account Entry
C. Account
D. Account Detail
Answer: C

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NO.3 When determining how to best control access to data, the Business Analyst must have an
understanding of the differences between master data and customer data.Which are examples of master
data? Choose two.
A. Literature
B. Products
C. Contacts
D. Accounts
Answer: AB

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NO.4 When a user does not have access to any views in a screen, which is true?
A. Neither the screen tab nor the Site Menu option is displayed
B. The views are listed only on the Site Map
C. The views are only accessible through a drilldown
D. The Screen containing the views is empty
Answer: A

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NO.5 The business analyst must consider the functional dependencies of the functionalities being
implemented to determine how implementations should be phased. Based on functional dependence,
which functionality would be implemented first?
A. Fulfillment
B. Orders
C. Quotes
D. Opportunities
Answer: D

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NO.6 Based on the About View screen shown below, what is the Contact business component on the
Accounts screen?
A. Child business component
B. Business object
C. Grandchild business component
D. Parent business component
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement about views and responsibilities is true?
A. Each responsibility assigned to a user must have entirely separate views assigned
B. A Manager responsibility and User responsibility may share views
C. Manager and User responsibilities will have completely different views
D. Users have access to the views associated with only one responsibility at a time
Answer: B

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NO.8 Limiting data displayed in the My Opportunities view to opportunities associated with a job role within
the organization is an example of what?
A. Opportunities associated with their user ID
B. Opportunities for which they are the primary
C. Opportunities associated with their position
D. Opportunities that they created
Answer: C

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NO.9 What effect does considering the change management implication have on an implementation?
A. Positively affects user adoption and long-term net benefits
B. Dramatically shortens implementation time
C. Significantly reduces the cost of implementation
D. Reduces the number of people required to work on the implementation
Answer: A

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NO.10 On an implementation project, there are strong indicators from the organization that implementing the
new application will meet resistance. You fear that this may impact the success of your project. Which
element of your project will most directly address this issue?
A. Superior technology
B. Change management
C. Business processes
D. Technical support
Answer: B

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NO.11 If you need to edit your company structure in the Siebel application, which of the following are you able
to do? Choose two.
A. Change the name of an organization
B. Remove an organization
C. Delete a division
D. Change a division's organization
Answer: AD

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NO.12 Which is a hosted solution that provides core functionality to casual users, business partners, and
remote divisions?
A. Siebel CRM Enterprise
B. Siebel CRM Professional Edition
C. Siebel CRM OnDemand
D. Siebel Analytics
Answer: C

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NO.13 Business analysts must be able to describe the relationship between Siebel software components to
successfully identify customer requirements. What is the role of the Enterprise Server in the Siebel
architecture?
A. Platform that supports the interactive, batch, and background processing for all Siebel clients
B. Groups Siebel Servers in a logical way so Siebel Server Manager can administer them
C. Controls server components running on a machine
D. Stores component definitions and assignments, operational parameters, and connectivity information
Answer: B

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NO.14 Your customer has a number of legacy systems that work differently from the Siebel application. How
would you determine, and show your customer, whether it is best to modify the Siebel application or
modify the customer's current business processes?
A. Leave the decision entirely up to your customer
B. Explain that the Siebel application should never be modified
C. Perform a cost-benefit analysis to decide which approach is best
D. Examine the available development resources to see if the work can be done before the project
deadline
Answer: C

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NO.15 A business analyst works with the customer on developing good business objectives for the
implementation project. Identify the three most acceptable business objectives below. Choose three.
A. Decrease revenue losses by 30% within two quarters
B. Add four additional customers each month for the first year
C. Change the color of all screens in the application to match the company color scheme
D. Increase customer survey responses by 5% with each survey
E. Increase customer loyalty in the south region
Answer: ABD

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NO.16 A business analyst must understand the integration options available to identify the most appropriate
solution for the customer.Your customer has a large number of systems that need to be integrated with
one another. They have been struggling with their integration because all of the systems have slightly
different data structures. Now they are adding Siebel applications to their enterprise and are becoming
overwhelmed with the challenge of integrating all of their systems. Which solution would you recommend
to your customer?
A. Use EAI to bring all of the data from all of the systems into the Siebel application
B. Use an Integration Server to connect the systems
C. Create a peer-to-peer connection between each system
D. Run a batch process every night to get all data into the Siebel application and then peer-to-peer to all
other systems
Answer: B

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NO.17 A business analyst works with the customer on developing good business objectives for the
implementation project. Identify the most acceptable business objectives below. Choose three.
A. Increase sales by 10% in Q3
B. Decrease turnover company-wide
C. Ensure customer ratings of 7.5 or greater within 6 months
D. Provide sales personnel with access to all accounts in their region
E. Add maiden name field to all account detail screens
Answer: ACD

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NO.18 Properly planning and conducting business process workshops is a critical element of the Business
Analyst role.Which is NOT a valid part of the questioning framework for a business process workshop?
A. Verifying that the process meets the customer's needs
B. Using the Siebel application demonstration as the primary enabler of the process
C. Confirming that the process supports the stated business objectives
D. Verifying that the steps in the process reflect the customer's activities
Answer: B

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NO.19 Business analysts must be able to describe the relationship between Siebel software components to
successfully identify customer requirements. What is the role of the Siebel Server in the Siebel
architecture?
A. Groups Siebel Servers in a logical way so Siebel Server Manager can administer them
B. Stores component definitions and assignments, operational parameters, and connectivity information
C. Platform that supports the interactive, batch, and background processing for all Siebel clients
D. Dynamically generates database-specific SQL statements in response to Object Manager requests
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which statement is true about access to views and data?
A. Users with the same responsibility have the same view and data access
B. View access for a responsibility in one organization will be different in another organization
C. View access and data access are completely independent of one another
D. User ID, position, and responsibility control access to data
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-052
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: Administrator I )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 205 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 You have executed this command to change the size of the database buffer cache:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=2516582;
System altered.
To verify the change in size, you executed this command:
SQL> SHOW PARAMETER DB_CACHE_SIZE
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------- ----------- ------------------
db_cache_size big integer 4194304
Why is the value set to 4194304 and not to 2516582?
A.because 4194304 is the granule size
B.because 4194304 is the standard block size
C.because 4194304 is the largest nonstandard block size defined in the database
D.because 4194304 is the total size of data already available in the database buffer cache
Answer: A

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NO.2 These are points that describe the contents of different memory components:
1. Descriptive information or metadata about schema objects that are queried by using SQL statements
2: The run-time area for data manipulation language (DML) or data definition language (DDL) statements
3: Results of SQL queries and PL/SQL functions
4: Executable forms of SQL cursors, PL/SQL programs, and Java classes
5: The information necessary to reconstruct changes made to the database by a transaction
Which of these will be stored in the Shared Pool if the necessary configurations are done?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 5
C.1, 3, and 4
D.3, 4, and 5
E.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.3 The database instance is currently using SPFILE. View the Exhibit and examine the error that you
received while running the DB Structure Integrity check.
Given below are the steps to recover from the error in random order:
1. Shut down the instance, if not already done.
2: Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location.
3: Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location of
the control files.
4: Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage.
5: Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.

NO.4 Which two statements are true about the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose two.)
A.All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
B.The AWR contains systemwide tracing and logging information.
C.The snapshots collected by the AWR are accessible through data dictionary views.
D.The snapshots collected by the AWR are used by self-tuning components in the database.
Answer: CD

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NO.5 While observing the index statistics, you find that an index is highly fragmented, thereby resulting in
poor database performance. Which option would you use to reduce fragmentation without affecting the
users who are currently using the index?
A.Validate the index structure using the ANALYZE...INDEX command.
B.Rebuild the index using the ALTER INDEX..REBUILD ONLINE command.
C.Change the block space utilization parameters using the ALTER INDEX command.
D.Deallocate the unused space in the index using the ALTER INDEX..DEALLOCATE UNUSED command.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have issued a SHUTDOWN ABORT command to bring down your database instance. Consider
the steps that will be performed later when you open the database:
1. SGA is allocated.
2: Control file is read.
3: Redo log files are read.
4: Instance recovery is started.
5: Background processes are started.
6: Data files are checked for consistency.
7: Server parameter file or the initialization parameter file is read.
Which option has the correct order in which these steps occur?
A.7, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4
B.1, 2, 3,7, 5, 6, 4
C.7, 1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6
D.1, 7, 5, 4, 2, 3, 6
Answer: A

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NO.7 Open the database.
Identify the correct sequence of steps?
A.1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6
B.2, 4, 3, 5, 6; 1 not required
C.4, 5, 6, 2, 3; 1 not required
D.5, 2, 3, 4; 1 and 6 not required
Answer: A

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6. Note the following points describing various utilities in Oracle Database 11g:
1. It enables the high-speed transfer of data from one database to another.
2: It provides a complete solution for the backup, restoration, and recovery needs of the entire database.
3: It enables the loading of data from an external file into an Oracle database.
4: It provides a tape backup management for the Oracle ecosystem.
Which point describes Oracle Secure Backup?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.1, 2, and 4
F.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

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NO.8 View the Exhibit and examine the attributes of an undo tablespace.
In an OLTP system, the user SCOTT has started a query on a large table in the peak transactional hour
that performs bulk inserts. The query runs for more than 15 minutes and then SCOTT receives the
following error:
ORA-01555: snapshot too old
What could be the reason for this error?
A.The query is unable to get a read-consistent image.
B.There is not enough space in Flash Recovery Area.
C.There is not enough free space in the flashback archive.
D.The query is unable to place data blocks in undo tablespace
Answer: A

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NO.9 Examine the following statement that is used to modify the constraint on the SALES table:
SQL> ALTER TABLE SALES MODIFY CONSTRAINT pk DISABLE VALIDATE;
Which three statements are true regarding the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The constraint remains valid.
B.The index on the constraint is dropped.
C.It allows the loading of data into the table using SQL *Loader.
D.New data conforms to the constraint, but existing data is not checked.
E.It allows the data manipulation on the table using INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE SQL statements.
Answer: ABC

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NO.10 Which two statements about the background process of the database writer are true? (Choose two.)
A.It is possible to have multiple database writers in an Oracle instance.
B.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a checkpoint occurs.
C.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a transaction commits.
D.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files before the log writer (LGWR) writes.
Answer: AB

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NO.11 View the Exhibit and examine the privileges granted to the SL_REP user.
The EMP table is owned by the SCOTT user. The SL_REP user executes the following command:
SQL> GRANT SELECT ON scott.emp TO hr;
Which statement describes the outcome of the command?
A.The command executes successfully.
B.The command produces an error because the EMP table is owned by SCOTT.
C.The command produces an error because SL_REP has the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE without
ADMIN_OPTION.
D.The command produces an error because SL_REP does not have the SELECT privilege with
GRANT_OPTION on the EMP table.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Note the following functionalities of various background processes:
1. Record the checkpoint information in data file headers.
2: Perform recovery at instance startup.
3: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
4: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
5: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
6: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Archiver Process (ARCn): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor Process (SMON): 1, 4, 5
C.Process Monitor Process (PMON): 4, 5, 6
D.Database Writer Process (DBWn): 1, 3, 4
Answer: C

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NO.13 View the Exhibit and identify the component marked with a question mark.
A.Checkpoint (CKPT)
B.Process Monitor (PMON)
C.Archiver Processes (ARCn)
D.Recoverer Process (RECO)
E.Memory Manager process (MMAN)
Answer: A

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NO.14 Identify the memory component from which memory may be allocated for:
1. Session memory for the shared server
2: Buffers for I/O slaves
3: Oracle Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations
A.Large Pool
B.Redo Log Buffer
C.Database Buffer Cache
D.Program Global Area (PGA)
Answer: A

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NO.15 Note the functionalities of various background processes:
1. Perform recovery at instance startup.
2: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
3: Cleanup the database buffer cache when a process fails.
4: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
5: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
6: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
7: Record the checkpoint information in control file.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Checkpoint (CKPT): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor (SMON): 1, 6
C.Process Monitor (PMON): 4, 6, 7
D.Database Writer (DBWR): 1, 3, 4
Answer: B

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NO.16 You have set Tablespace Full Metrics Threshold values for the USERS tablespace as follows:
Warning (%): 90
Critical (%): 95
Which background process is responsible for issuing alerts when the threshold is crossed?
A.System monitor (SMON)
B.Process monitor (PMON)
C.Memory manager process (MMAN)
D.Manageability Monitor process (MMON)
Answer: D

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NO.17 Observe the information in the columns:
1. The SGAa. Text and parsed forms of all SQL statements
2: The cursor stateb. Run-time memory values for the SQL statement, such as rows retrieved
3: User-session datac. Security and resource usage information
4: The stack spaced. Local variables for the process
Which option has the correct match between the memory areas and their contents?
A.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
B.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
C.1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
D.1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
Answer: C

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NO.18 Your test database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode. Which statement is true regarding the type of
backups that can be performed on the database?
A.You can perform online whole database backups.
B.You can perform offline whole database backups.
C.You cannot perform schema-level export/import operations.
D.You can perform the backup of only the SYSTEM tablespace when the database is open.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which two statements are true about Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area? (Choose two.)
A.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the shared pool.
B.Shared SQL Area will be allocated when a session starts.
C.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the large pool always.
D.Private SQL Area will be allocated in the Program Global Area (PGA) always.
E.Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area will be allocated in the PGA or large pool.
F.The number of Private SQL Area allocations is dependent on the OPEN_CURSORS parameter.
Answer: AF

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NO.20 Which is the correct description of a pinned buffer in the database buffer cache?
A.The buffer is currently being accessed.
B.The buffer is empty and has not been used.
C.The contents of the buffer have changed and must be flushed to the disk by the DBWn process.
D.The buffer is a candidate for immediate aging out and its contents are synchronized with the block
contents on the disk.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z0-218
Exam Name: Oracle (PeopleSoft HRMS Fundamentals)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 106 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Identify the three types of organizational relationships that PeopleSoft HCM 9.0 has. (Choose three.)
A. Trustee
B. Employee
C. Contractor
D. Board Member
E. Person of Interest
F. Contingent Worker
G. Global Payroll Employee
Answer: BEF

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NO.2 Which default value do the Job Code table and Location table have in common?
A. Salary Plan
B. Work Period
C. Tax Location
D. Standard Hours
E. Establishment ID
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your client is using PeopleSoft HCM 9.0. It wants to pay some of its existing Persons of Interest
(POIs).
Which page in PeopleSoft do they use to set up their POIs for payment?
A. Job Data
B. Other Payee
C. Modify a Person
D. Add a POI Relationship
E. Maintain a Person's POI Reltn
Answer: B

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NO.4 Your client has North American Payroll and Global Payroll. When adding an employment instance for
a new hire, your client selects a payroll system to use for processing the employee's payroll. Depending
on which payroll system is selected, the input field names displayed would differ on the Payroll page
except for two field names.
Identify the two field names that are displayed on the Payroll page for both payroll systems. (Choose two.)
A. Paygroup
B. GL Pay Type
C. Eligibility Group
D. Employee Type
E. Holiday Schedule
F. Exchange Rate Type
Answer: AE

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NO.5 Which three fields default from the Department table to the employee job data level? (Choose three.)
A. Grade
B. Location
C. Company
D. Pay Group
E. Business Unit
F. Supervisor ID
G. Employee Type
Answer: BCF

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NO.6 View the Exhibits.
Your client wants to set up a new department called ABC Headquarter for their newly acquired company
ABC. The client shares the department and location information cross all business units.
The HR Administrator has checked that the location code ABCHQ showed up under the Location Table
Search Result page under SetID "Share". However, when she tried to attach this location code to the new
department she is trying to create, she got the error message.
Which two setups may have caused the error message to be displayed? (Choose two.)
A. The Location SetID may not be valid for this department.
B. The Department may have an earlier Effective Date than the Location.
C. The Location and the Department may not belong to the same Business Unit.
D. The Location may have been inactivated before the Department's Effective Date.
E. The Location may not be associated with the proper company that the department is attached to.
F. The TableSet Control table may not be set up correctly for the Record_Group Location and the
Record_Group Department.
Answer: BD

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NO.7 Which three statements describe the benefits of using tableset sharing in the PeopleSoft system?
(Choose three.)
A. Tableset sharing uses SetID to restrict or grant access to data within a table.
B. Tableset sharing allows organizations to track and report business information.
C. Tableset sharing enables organizations to group rows of data within a control table by using a
high-level key called a SetID.
D. Tableset sharing uses Department ID in conjunction with department security tree to restrict or grant
access to data within a table.
E. Tableset sharing enables organizations to utilize indexing capabilities on mapped records for faster
search results on employee data.
F. Tableset sharing enables organizations to share information instead of entering it multiple times, when
large portions of data are the same for various business units.
Answer: ACF

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NO.8 Your client is implementing PeopleSoft HRMS system with Payroll Interface. The client is to start
configuring Pay Group table.
What table value should exist in the system before configuring Pay Groups?
A. Location
B. Company
C. Salary Plan
D. Salary Step
E. Salary Grade
F. Additional Pay
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which PeopleSoft table do you use to identify a group of employees who share common pay
characteristics?
A. Job Code Table
B. Company Table
C. Pay Group Table
D. Salary Plan Table
E. Salary Grade Tables
F. Comp Rate Code Table
Answer: C

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NO.10 Using a Permission List associated with a user and identifying security sets and access types in the
Security by Permission List component of PeopleSoft are known as _____.
A. Role-based data permission security
B. Tree-based data permission security
C. Group-based data permission security
D. Country-based data permission security
E. PeopleCode-based data permission security
Answer: A

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NO.11 You are at your client site working on PeopleSoft HRMS implementation. One of your tasks is to add
systemwide defaults in order to save time when a user is entering information in transaction tables.
Identify which field is NOT a default option in the Org Default by Permission List component.
A. SetID
B. Country
C. Company
D. To Currency
E. Business Unit
F. Compensation Frequency
Answer: F

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NO.12 Your organization has decided to use a department security tree for Row-Level security in PeopleSoft
HRMS system.
You decided to use the XYZ permission list to secure data using the Security by Department Tree
component.
Which step do you need to perform to ensure that Row-Level security is enforced?
A. Add the XYZ permission list to User Profile.
B. Add the XYZ permission list to Security Set.
C. Add the XYZ permission list to Tree Manager.
D. Add the XYZ permission list to Configuration Manager.
E. Add the XYZ permission list to a role and then assign that role to a user.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Your organization has decided to implement row-level security. You suggested securing data by
associating the company with people having jobs. This method of securing data is known as _____.
A. Access Type / Role
B. Permission List / Role
C. Security set / Access Type
D. Security set / Permission List
E. Permission List / User Profile
F. Access Type / Permission List
Answer: C

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NO.14 On the Add a Person page in PeopleSoft HCM 9.0, you can input all information about a person
EXCEPT for these four details: _____. (Choose four.)
A. Ethnic Group
B. Bank Account
C. Military Status
D. Badge Number
E. Smoker History
F. Emergency Contact
G. Driver License Number
Answer: BDFG

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NO.15 On the Job Data Work Location tab for a new hire, Company is a required field.
You can default Company from the _____ table.
A. Location
B. Job Code
C. Position Data
D. Business Unit
E. Holiday Schedule
Answer: C

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NO.16 What should you do when system performance is affected and you no longer want to maintain all
employee records on the Job table?
A. Purge employee data from the system.
B. Use PeopleCode to hide data on the Job Data page.
C. Access the Job Data page in Correct History mode and change the status to Inactive.
D. Insert a new effective dated row on the Job Data page and change the status to Inactive.
E. Change the description field on the Job Data page to state that this row is no longer active.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Adam is entering new hire information in the PeopleSoft system. Adam enters the new hire personal
information and creates the organizational relationship of the new hire as EMPLOYEE. After Adam
establishes the new hire's relationship with the organization, the system opens the JOB DATA page for
Adam to enter the new hires job-related information.
Adam decides to complete the new hires job-related information after his lunch break and cancels out of
the JOB DATA page.
What must be Adam's approach to successfully complete the new hire's job-related information in the
PeopleSoft system after his break?
A. Enter job-related information using Job Data component.
B. Complete both personal information and job information at the same time.
C. Enter job-related information using the Add Employment Instance component.
D. Run SJT refresh process first and then enter job-related information using Job Data component.
E. Run SJT refresh process first and then enter job-related information using the Add Employment
Instance component.
Answer: C

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NO.18 After inputting a department in Job Data, which four additional fields could be populated based on the
defaults defined on the Department table? (Choose four.)
A. Location
B. Company
C. Paygroup
D. Tax Location
E. Business Unit
F. Supervisor ID
G. Establishment ID
Answer: ABDF

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NO.19 PeopleSoft HCM 9.0 has several pages where you can access the Add a Person component.
Identify four components that have an option to Add a Person. (Choose four.)
A. Job Data
B. Other Payee
C. Add a Person
D. Manage Hires
E. Modify a Person
F. Add Employment Instance
Answer: BCDE

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NO.20 Which four components can be used to add a job instance for a person in PeopleSoft HCM 9.0?
(Choose four.)
A. Manage Hires
B. Modify a Person
C. Add Employment Instance
D. Add Person of Interest Job
E. Add Contingent Worker Instance
Answer: ACDE

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Exam Code: 1z0-526
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Business Intelligence Foundation 10.1.3 Essentials )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 A Rank measure is _____________
A. Defined in the presentation layer only
B. Defined on a Logical table and referenced in the presentation layer
C. Defined in the on a physical table and referenced in the logical and presentation layers
D. computed in the ETL process
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two of the following are Oracle recommended leading practices to enhance performance?
A. Design requests that use complex queries
B. Avoid designing dashboards that return too much data
C. Use caching to improve query speed
D. Avoid using Guided Navigation unless the dataset will be huge
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Which two of the following are true regarding the aggregate Persistence Wizard?
A. It automates the creation and initial population of aggregates.
B. It is can be used to persist dynamic repository variables to the back end database.
C. It can be used to configure the BI server metadata layer.
D. It can be used to configure Dashboards.
E. It can be used to configure Answer Report
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which three of the following are true of iBots?
A. They are driven by events
B. They can execute scripts
C. They can trigger workflow
D. They can directly trigger Assignment Manger
E. They cannot be subscribed
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Which of the following tasks can you perform in the catalog manager?
A. set permission for web catalog items
B. Mange privileges and right given to groups and users
C. Set authentication options
D. Manage web group and Users
Answer: A

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NO.6 ABC wants to track the difference between the amount billed and the amount collected from its
customers for every quarter. Which of the following methods would NOT be used in this situation?
A. Create a new logical column in the business model
B. Create a new column in the presentation layer
C. Use existing physical columns as objects in a formula
D. Create the calculation wizard to create a new column Comparing two existing column
E. Create a new physical column using the calculation wizard
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which of the following is one of the Oracle-recommended Analytics implementation leading practice?
A. Use an iterative approach
B. Assign logical column name the same as the physical table column name
C. Make several catalogs map to the several different subject areas
D. There should be 1:1 mapping between physical facts and dimension table and logical fact and
dimension table
E. Define expression and keys when setting a complex join in a business model
Answer: A

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NO.8 ABC's Database administrator has divided its region table into several tables so that the west region is
in one table and all the other regions are stored in another table. What kind of partitioning is used?
A. Fact-Based
B. Level-Based
C. Mixed
D. Complex
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which three of the following are true of the oracle BI Security Capabilities?
A. Authentication in Oracle BI is the process by which the oracle BI Server verifies that a user indeed the
right person who has the right to log in
B. Access to repository objects and some web catalog objects can be controlled but data that appear in
dashboards and reports cannot be controlled
C. You can bypass Oracle BI Security by setting AUTHENTICATION_TYPE in the NQSConfig.ini to
BYPASS_NQS
D. Administrators cannot set a limit on the time it takes the system to execute a query
E. Administrator can control when users will be able to query the database by disabling query
functionality.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.10 ABC's Human resources department would like to add to store employee data so that all changes in
each employee's marital status are saved, and not just one prior version of the history. Which would best
meet ABC's requirements?
A. Type I slowly changing dimension
B. Type II slowly changing dimension
C. Type III slowly changing dimension
D. None of above
Answer: B

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