2013年11月5日星期二

HP HP2-N40 exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: HP2-N40
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP SaaS Solutions [2013])
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-05

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NO.1 According the ALM Partner Handbook, the PC RACI chart Onboarding phase lists the task user
management. Who is responsible for defining the customer project users in the ALM add-on?
A. HP SaaS SOC
B. HP SaaS operations engineers
C. Partner CSM
D. Partner Success Manager
Answer: D

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NO.2 You open a severity critical issue and have been working with an SOC engineer to solve the
problem. The time to resolve exceeds the SLO defined in the support datasheet, and you believe
you are not making progress. You feel you need to escalate further. According to the ALM Partner
Handbook, what is the protocol?
A. Send an email to SaaS Support with the subject line: 911.
B. Call the SOC and ask to speak to the lead manager on duty.
C. Contact the sales representative to help you resolve the issue.
D. Contact your Partner Success Manager as your first management escalation point.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the protocols that are supported on HP SaaS Global Business
Process Monitors?
A. All protocols that are already supported in the latest HP Vugen Software version are supported.
B. The up-to-date list of supported protocols in published on the HP APM User Guide, in the End
User Management section.
C. The list of supported protocols is not public and can be obtained only through the HP SaaS 24 /7
Server Operations Center (SOC).
D. Only HTTP is supported.
Answer: A

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NO.4 For any valid HP SaaS contracts, you will receive a unique service agreement ID (SAID), or SaaS
SAID. As an HP software partner you will also have one or more valid software product SAIDs. When
contacting Hp SaaS support which assumption is true?
A. The SaaS SAID is an identifier for HP-internal use only. You will contract the HP Software Support
helpdesk using your existing Software Products SAID. The HP engineers will then dispatch the
requests appropriately depending on the type of requests or incidents.
B. You will use your SaaS contract SAID primarily for HP SaaS infrastructure related issues. For HP
Software products related issues. You will submit other requests using your Software product SAID.
C. For the duration of the HP SaaS Contract, you will use the SaaS SAID for SaaS infrastructure
related issues and HP Software Products related issues.
D. You will contract the Generic HP Software Support helpdesk using either the SaaS SAID or your
existing Software Product SAID. The HP engineers will then dispatch the requests appropriately
depending on the type of request or incident.
Answer: D

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NO.5 In the proposed HP APM on SaaS Partner Led Delivery model, the HP partner will assume
responsibility for which project phase?
A. implementation and on-going configurations maintenance throughout the course of the
relationship with the end customer
B. initial implementation of the project
C. on-going configurations maintenance only
D. HP APM on SaaS core product setup, implementation, and on-going maintenance throughout the
course of the relationship with the end customer.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statements accurately describe the scope of the HP APM on SaaS partner Delivery
Handbook? (Select two.)
A. It describes how to integrate BSM on premises installation to the HP APM on Saas.
B. The APM on SaaS partner handbook document provides a step-by-step guide on how to install,
configure, and maintain HP APM on SaaS.
C. The handbook provides guidelines for support and indicates reference materials that will allow
you to effectively manage your HP APM Software engagement with your Customers.
D. The APM on SaaS partner handbook describes the APM on SaaS partner-led delivery offering with
descriptions of your roles and responsibilities in the offering.
E. The APM on SaaS partner handbook document is a list of definitions and key terminologies used
by HP SaaS personnel.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 How do you find the requirements and process document to connect your BPM software
on-premises (or internal BPMs) to HP APM on SaaS?
A. Find this document on the HP Partner Central Repository Portal.
B. Access the SaaS Library repository form the HP SaaS APM Admin tab.
C. Log a service request with HP SaaS Support to supply the documentation and process support.
D. Contact your HP Partner Success Manager to get you a copy of the documentation and process
support.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which integration can be categorized as non-standard HP APM on SaaS? (Select two.)
A. Integration of on-premises HP data collectors such as HP BPM Software
B. Data exports via FTP
C. Monitoring alert event integration out of HP APM
D. Enterprise management System (EMS) to HP APM on SaaS
E. Integrations requiring a site-to- site VPN
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: HP0-J66
Exam Name: HP (HP Storage Migration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-05

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NO.1 As part of an upgrade of their existing infrastructure, a customer is considering replacing their
Fibre Channel host bus adapters (HBAs) and Ethernet converged network adapters (CNAs).
How can they expect to improve efficiency through this upgrade?
A. 3:1 port consolidation
B. path failover redundancy
C. greater aggregate throughput
D. cable reduction up to 75%
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The HP Dual Port Converged Network Adapters (CNAs) are dual port adapters that provide Ethernet,
iSCSI, and Fibre Channel (FC) connectivity over 10GbE using both Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
and Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) standards. By consolidating Ethernet, iSCSI, and Fibre
Channel onto a converged network adapter, HP CNAs reduce the number of separate adapters and
cables required for your datacenter and also reduce operational, power and cooling costs while
preserving existing Ethernet and Fibre Channel infrastructure.

NO.2 A customer needs to be able to recover their data in the event of a site failure.
They have a strict recovery point objective for their business-critical applications.
Which technique should the customer use?
A. snapshots
B. backups to tape
C. backups to disk
D. remote replication
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Need replication to get the data to a backup site.
Note:
*Recovery Point Objective (RPO) refers to the required point-in-time to which a DR solution
canrestore the state of data for a particular service, for example, how much data loss is
acceptablefollowing a disaster. These requirements can range from "close to zero" data loss (for
high-valuefinancial transactions, for example) to some small number of minutes of the most recent

NO.3 A customer needs to migrate data to a new database environment. They need to make a
physical copy of their data that can be presented to the new environment with the highest level of
availability. Which form of replication should the customer use?
A. backups to disk
B. snapshots
C. clones
D. asynchronous replication
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Incorrect: Not B:A storage snapshot is a set of reference markers, or pointers, to data stored on a
disk drive, on a tape, or in a storage area network (SAN). A snapshot is something like a detailed
table of contents, but it is treated by the computer as a complete data backup. Snapshots
streamline access to stored data and can speed up the process of data recovery. There are two main
types of storage snapshot, called the copy-on-write (or low-capacity) snapshot and the split-mirror
snapshot. Utilities are available that can automatically generate either type.
9. A customer needs to replicate data from a remote location to an HP StoreOnce B6200 Backup.
A. The HP D2D sizing tool should be usedto size link speed and understand concurrency restraints.
B. Concurrency control should be used if the replication isnot run at the same times as backups and
housekeeping jobs.
C. Separate replication jobs should be created for each datatype.
D. Backups and housekeeping jobs should berun in thereplication window.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The replication best practices that apply to HP StoreOnce D2D Backup Systems are
equally as valid for the HP B6200 StoreOnce Backup System.
Best practices include:
*Use the Sizing tool to size replication link speed and understand replication concurrency
restraints.
Reference; HP B6200 Backup System, Recommended Configuration Guidelines
10. In which HP rack is the factory Integration of an HP StoreServ 7000 supported?
A. HP 5642 rack
B. HP G3 rack
C. HP 10000 rack
D. HPV142 rack
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Choose Racking Options The HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 is compatible with most industry standard
4-post EIA 19 inch racks with square mounting holes, including the HP Intelligent Series Rack and
the HP 10000 G2 Series Rack. The HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 can be factory configured and shipped in
a rack or shipped without a rack for field integration into an existing rack. The rack used for factory
integration is the HP Intelligent Series Rack.

NO.4 What are the benefits of migrating to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000?
A. Virtualizationof homogenous storage devices
B. increased efficiency through reduced capacity requirements
C. multi-tier storage availability in hyperscale enterprise platform
D. federated non-disruptive data mobility between third-party systems
Answer: D

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Explanation:
HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storageisthe only platform that offers the performance required to double
virtual machine (VM) density on your physical servers-guaranteed.
Store all of your data on a single system that supports advanced features such as storage federation
and automated tiering and enables you to start small and grow without disruption.

NO.5 A customer is planning to migrate their master database to a remote location. Their network
uses GbE for FCIP tunneling. Which Fibre Channel switch port interface must they use?
A. EX_Port
B. E_Port
C. VEX_Port
D. VE_Port
Answer: D

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Explanation:
*VE_Port-Virtual E_Port used with a GbE port for FCIP tunneling
*You can configure a Fibre Channel port as an F_Port, FL_Port, E_Port, or EX_Port (Fibre Channel
routing),and configure a GbE port as a VE_Port (FCIP) or VEX_Port (FCIP with Fibre Channel routing).

NO.6 A customer is planning to migrate from an HP EVA to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage
System The customer uses disk groups on the EVA for fine-grained database management.
What can the customer use to achieve fine-grained database management on the HP 3PAR
StoreServ 7000?
A. logical volumes
B. common provisioning groups
C. disk groups
D. virtual volumes
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Terminology comparison between EVA and HP 3PAR StoreServ EVA P6000:Disk Group HP 3PAR
StoreServ:Common Provisioning Group (CPG)

NO.7 Your customer has an existing HP StoreServ 7400 with four controllers. The array has only SSD
drives installed. What should you consider when sizing a solution which includes Adaptive
Optimization?
A. Ensure that 3% of the capacity and 30% of the performance can be delivered by the SAS disks.
B. Include SAS 10/15K disks in the configuration.
C. Add SSDs or nearline disks to a single node pair.
D. Size the nearline tier for 30% of the performance requirement.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Note:
*SAS stands for Serial Attached SCSI. Basically, a SAS drive utilizes the same form factor as a
SATA drive but has several high performance advantages. First of all, there's the platter speed.
While typical SATA drives operate at 7200RPM, a SAS drive operates at 10K or 15K. Although the
platter speed is double that of SATA, the MTBF (Mean Time Before Failure) remains at the
industry standard of 1.2 million hours.
*Make sure to define tier 0 to be on a higher performance level than tier 1, which in turn should be
higher performance than tier 2. For example, you may choose RAID 1 with SSDs for tier 0, RAID 5
with FC drives for tier 1 and RAID 6 with NL or SATA drives for tier 2.
*Best practices encourage you to begin your Adaptive Optimization configurations with your
application CPG starting with tier 1. For example, tier 1 could be CPG using your FC or SAS physical
disks. This allows you to add both higher and lower tier capabilities at a later date. If you don't have
higher or lower tier, you can add either or both at a later date by using a new CPG, such as tier 0
using SSDs or tier 2 using NL. Or, you could have CPG tiers with RAID 1 or RAID 5 and RAID 6. The
main point is that you should begin with middle CPG tier 1 when configuring Adaptive Optimization
with your application.
* Example: HP 3PAR Adaptive Optimization moved ~33 percent of the IOPS workload to the SSD
drives even though that involved moving only 1 percent of the space. Performance improved in two
ways: the 33 percent of the IOPS that were serviced by SSD drives got very good latencies (~2 ms),
and the latencies for the NL drives also improved (from ~40 ms to ~15 ms). Moreover, the
investment in the 16 SSD drives permitted them to add even more NL drives in the future, because
the SSD drives have both space and performance headroom remaining.
Reference;Adaptive Optimization for HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage

NO.8 A customer with multiple HP 3PAR P10000 Storage Systems needs to move data between the
arrays. They need to ensure that the migration will not disrupt their applications, users, or services.
Which storage method should the customer use to achieve this goal?
A. point-in-time copies
B. backups to disk
C. storage federation
D. deduplication
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Storage federation from HP enables the online non-disruptive movement of storage volumes
between arrays in a metro area. Unlike external storage virtualization appliances that add cost,
complexity and downtime, storage federation from HP creates a persistent pool of capacity using
native communication between system controllers.

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Exam Code: 1Z0-530
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Enterprise Manager 11g Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-04

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NO.1 Which Pack includes JVM Diagnostics (formerly AD4J)?
A. Diagnostics Pack for Oracle Middleware
B. Database Diagnostics Pack
C. Configuration Management Pack
D. Provisioning and Patch Automation Pack
Answer: A

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NO.2 Enterprise Manager beacons are a feature of which 11g management pack.?
A. Provisioning and Patch Automation
B. Database Diagnostics
C. Configuration Management
D. Real User Experience Insight
Answer: C

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NO.3 In whichtwo locations can you find the installation and configuration logs for a management agent?
A. $AGE.T_HOME/sysman/config
B. $AGEMT_HOME/flysman/log
C. $ACEMT_HOME/cfgtoollogs
D. $IMVEHTORY_LOC/logs
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 You are trying to diagnose performance issues in a slow database. Where can you collect system
statistics?
A. Memory Access Module
B. V$_SYSMEM
C. The oemdb.log consolidated log file
D. Data Masking
Answer: A

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NO.5 How does Oracle Business Transaction Management map dependencies between services?
A. Statically, but looking in design-time repositories
B. Via integration with modeling tools
C. By evaluating live application invocations
D. By inspecting the source code
Answer: B

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NO.6 You want to save and reuse Information Publisher jobs in the future. You should use______.
A. Job Library
B. Job Activity
C. Multitask Job
D. Groups
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which could be used to identify the top pages in a Web application?
A. Service Level Management Pack
B. Real User Experience Insight
C. Configuration Management Pack
D. WebLogic Management Pack
Answer: C

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NO.8 That EM feature can Bruce use to monitor non-Oracle components from the Grid Control console?
A. Management Plug-ins
B. Connector Framework
C. User Exits
D. This feature is not supported in Enterprise Manager.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is needed to establish monitoring of SSL-encrypted HTTP traffic?
A. Monitoring of SSL traffic is not supported by RUEI.
B. Installation of an SSL decryption card is required in the RUEI server.
C. A copy of the SSL key and certificate need to be uploaded to RUEI.
D. RUEI should negotiate a private SSL key/certificate pair with each Web server.
Answer: C

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NO.10 The Connector Framework resides on________.
A. Oracle Management Service (OMS)
B. Oracle Fusion Middleware
C. Grid Control console
D. Memory Access Module
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z0-542
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Enterprise Content Management Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-04

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NO.1 ______and _____are prerequisites needed to install Oracle Digital Asset Management?
A. Connection Server
B. Content Server
C. Inbound Refinery
D. Hip Factory
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Oracle Site Studio's contributor editor window has one or more form fields, one for each____ in the data
file associated with the current contribution region on the Web page.
A. Fragment
B. Element
C. Placeholder
D. Region
Answer: B

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NO.3 Select the mode in which Oracle's Site Studio Manager can be displayed.
A. Contribution
B. Assistance
C. Normal
D. Basic
Answer: A

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NO.4 An XML file that stores all information about a Site Studio Web site on the content server is known as
the__________.
A. Configuration File
B. Project File
C. Date File
D. Template File
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two objects are part of Oracle Universal Records Management file plan hierarchy?
A. Record Method
B. Record Category
C. Record Function
D. Record Folder
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 In Content Server, which system service provides the ability to obtain information about the storage
volumes that are available for document storage?
A. PreferenceService
B. TicketService
C. DocumentService
D. LifecycleService
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two statements are true about Oracle Universal Records Management?
A. It can manage physical records only.
B. It can manage electronic records only.
C. It can manage both electronic and physical records.
D. It can manage both records and non-records.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which revision status indicates that the revision is being converted to Web-viewable format?
A. RELEASED
B. REVIEW
C. GenWWW
D. EXPIRED
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which statement is true about the role based security model in Oracle Content Server?
A. Only the system administrator user can assign a role to each user.
B. Only the system administrater role can assign more than one role to a user.
C. Both the system administrator and subadministrator users can assign one or more roles to auser.
D Only the subadministrator role can assign more than one role to a user.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the common feature of Oracle Document Capture and Oracle Distributed Document. Capture
that help leverage corporate data to dynamically index documents.?
A. Audit Table
B. Separator Sheet
C. Database Lookup
D. Data Link
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Application Integration Architecture 11g Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-04

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NO.1 What should you define for an EBS before you begin implementing its operations?
A. contract
B. .cfg file
C. XSD
D. cross-reference
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the purpose of harvesting?
A. to parse theimplementation artifacts and persist their metadata to the AIA backend
B. to source control the implementation artifacts
C. to test the implementation
D. to collect the produced artifacts and store them
Answer: A

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NO.3 How do you jump start standards-compliant service deployment?
A. By using AIA code generator tool to create a skeleton of ABCS
B. By creating ABCS manually and by executing PIP Auditor to check compliance
C. By enforcing sticker qa checks
D. By manual code walkthrough
Answer: A

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NO.4 For upgrades, knowing what custom mappings have been done can be very useful for customers to
identify whether the upgrade will cause any functional issues. How will you identify the functional issues?
A. XMAN (mapping compliance reports) reports in the CSV can be analyzed to find duplicate EBM
mappings that also contain extended records.
B. XMAN (mapping compliance reports) CSV reports can be analyzed to find the ABCS name that has
changed.
C. PIP Auditor reports can be analyzed to figure out the compliance of upgraded PIP.
D. EOL2CSV reports can be analyzed to find the correct ABCS for specific business flow.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about Enterprise Business Flow (EBF) in context of Oracle AIA?
A. The EBF will have no activity that needs human-to-human interaction.
B. The EBF will involve only human-to-human or service-to-service Interaction.
C. The EBF will involve only system-to-system or service-to-service Interaction.
D. The EBF will involve only system-to-system or human-to-human interaction.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which one best defines where an EBO is defined?
A. WSDL document
B. XSD document
C. Java source file
D. .cfg configuration file
Answer: B

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NO.7 On your project, you are ready to generate a Deployment Plan. What three parameter values will you
need to be ready for?
A. BOM file location as output file
B. BOM file location as input file
C. Deployment Plan file location as Input file
D. Deployment Plan file location as output file
E. Harvester Settings file location as output file
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.8 Which statement is true about the AIAConfigurationProperties.xml file.?
A. All the service-level configuration properties are stored within the module-level properties.
B. All the module-level configuration properties are stored within the service-level properties.
C. All the module-level configuration properties are stored within the system-level properties.
D. All the service-level configuration properties are stored within the system-level properties
Answer: C

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NO.9 In which two ways is an EBF similar to an EBS?
A. They operate only on EBMs.
B. They are external application-independent.
C. They are developed at the same time in the life cycle.
D. Both are modeled to implement only a single operation.
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Which two statements are true for a requester ABCS?
A. It receives the ABM as pay load and optionally returns the ABM as the response.
B. It cannot have additional interactions with the requester application to enrich the ABM.
C. It is supplied by the provider application to interface with an EBS.
D. It enables the participating application to invoke an EBS either to access data or to perform
transactional task.
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-853
Exam Name: Oracle (Java Standard Edition 5 Programmer Certified Professional Exam)
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Total Q&A: 362 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-04

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Given this code from Class B:
25. A a1 = new A();
26. A a2 = new A();
27. A a3 = new A();
28. System.out.println(A.getInstanceCount());
What is the result?
A. Compilation of class A fails.
B. Line 28 prints the value 3 to System.out.
C. Line 28 prints the value 1 to System.out.
D. Compilation fails because of an error on line 28.
E. A runtime error occurs when line 25 executes.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Pass2 p = new Pass2();

NO.3 Given:
11. // insert code here
12. private N min, max;
13. public N getMin() { return min; }
14. public N getMax() { return max; }
15. public void add(N added) {
16. if (min == null || added.doubleValue() < min.doubleValue()) 17. min = added;
18. if (max == null || added.doubleValue() > max.doubleValue()) 19. max = added;
20. }
21. }
Which two, inserted at line 11, will allow the code to compile? (Choose two.)
A. public class MinMax<? extends Object> {
B. public class MinMax<N extends Integer> {
C. public class MinMax<N extends Object> {
D. public class MinMax<N extends Number> {
E. public class MinMax<?> {
F. public class MinMax<? extends Number> {
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 }
Which code, inserted at line 15, creates an instance of the Point class defined in Line?
A. Line l = new Line() ; l.Point p = new l.Point();
B. Line.Point p = new Line.Point();
C. The Point class cannot be instatiated at line 15.
D. Point p = new Point();
Answer: B

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11.Click the Exhibit button.
What is the result?
A. The code will deadlock.
B. The code may run with output "2 0 6 4".
C. The code may run with no output.
D. The code may run with output "0 6".
E. An exception is thrown at runtime.
F. The code may run with output "0 2 4 6".
Answer: F

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12.Given:
1. public class Blip {
2. protected int blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
3. }
4. class Vert extends Blip {
5. // insert code here
6. }
Which five methods, inserted independently at line 5, will compile? (Choose five.)
A. protected int blipvert(long x) { return 0; }
B. protected long blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
C. private int blipvert(long x) { return 0; }
D. private int blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
E. public int blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
F. protected long blipvert(long x) { return 0; }
G. protected long blipvert(int x, int y) { return 0; }
Answer: A,C,E,F,G

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13.DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Answer:
14.Given:
12. System.out.format("Pi is approximately %d.", Math.PI);
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. Compilation fails.
C. Pi is approximately 3.
D. Pi is approximately 3.141593.
Answer: A

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15.Given the command line java Pass2 and:
15. public class Pass2 {
16. public void main(String [] args) {

NO.5 Given:
20. public class CreditCard {
21.
22. private String cardID;
23. private Integer limit;
24. public String ownerName;
25.
26. public void setCardInformation(String cardID,
27. String ownerName,
28. Integer limit) {
29. this.cardID = cardID;
30. this.ownerName = ownerName;
31. this.limit = limit;
32. }
33. }
Which statement is true?
A. The cardID and limit variables break polymorphism.
B. The code demonstrates polymorphism.
C. The ownerName variable breaks encapsulation.
D. The setCardInformation method breaks encapsulation.
E. The class is fully encapsulated.
Answer: C

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NO.6 }

NO.7 void doStuff(int x) {

NO.8 }

NO.9 System.out.print(" doStuff x = " + x++);

NO.10 Given:
10. class Line {

NO.11 // insert code here

NO.12 Given:
10. interface Jumper { public void jump(); } ...
20. class Animal {} ...
30. class Dog extends Animal {
31. Tail tail;
32. }
...
40. class Beagle extends Dog implements Jumper{
41. public void jump() {} 42. }
...
50. class Cat implements Jumper{
51. public void jump() {}
52. }.Which three are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cat is-a Jumper
B. Cat is-a Animal
C. Dog is-a Jumper
D. Dog is-a Animal
E. Beagle has-a Jumper
F. Cat has-a Animal
G. Beagle has-a Tail
Answer: A,D,G

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NO.13 int x = 6;

NO.14

NO.15 }
What is the result?
A. doStuff x = 6 main x = 6
B. Compilation fails.
C. doStuff x = 6 main x = 7
D. An exception is thrown at runtime.
E. doStuff x = 7 main x = 6
F. doStuff x = 7 main x = 7
Answer: D

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16.Given:
13. public static void search(List<String> list) {
14. list.clear();
15. list.add("b");
16. list.add("a");
17. list.add("c");
18. System.out.println(Collections.binarySearch(list, "a"));
19. }
What is the result of calling search with a valid List implementation?
A. 0
B. The result is undefined.
C. a
D. 2
E. 1
F. c
G. b
Answer: B

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17.Click the Exhibit button.
Given: ClassA a = new ClassA();
a.methodA();
What is the result?
A. The code runs with no output.
B. Compilation fails.
C. An exception is thrown at runtime.
D. ClassC is displayed.
Answer: C

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18.Given:
11. public static void test(String str) {
12. int check = 4;
13. if (check = str.length()) {
14. System.out.print(str.charAt(check -= 1) +", ");
15. } else {
16. System.out.print(str.charAt(0) + ", ");
17. }
18. }
and the invocation:
21. test("four");
22. test("tee");
23. test("to");
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. r, e, o,
C. Compilation fails.
D. r, t, t,
Answer: C

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19.A JavaBeans component has the following field:
11. private boolean enabled;
Which two pairs of method declarations follow the JavaBeans standard for accessing this field? (Choose
two.)
A. public boolean setEnabled( boolean enabled )
public boolean getEnabled()
B. public void setEnabled( boolean enabled )
public void isEnabled()
C. public void setEnabled( boolean enabled )
public boolean getEnabled()
D. public void setEnabled( boolean enabled )
public boolean isEnabled()
Answer: C,D

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20.Given:
11. public void genNumbers() {
12. ArrayList numbers = new ArrayList();
13. for (int i=0; i<10; i++) {
14. int value = i * ((int) Math.random());
15. Integer intObj = new Integer(value);
16. numbers.add(intObj);
17. }
18. System.out.println(numbers);
19. }
Which line of code marks the earliest point that an object referenced by intObj becomes a
candidate for garbage collection?
A. Line 19
B. The object is NOT a candidate for garbage collection.
C. Line 17
D. Line 16
E. Line 18
Answer: A

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21.Given:
11. String test = "This is a test";
12. String[] tokens = test.split("\s");
13. System.out.println(tokens.length);
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. 1
C. 4
D. Compilation fails.
E. 0
Answer: D

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22.Given:
12. System.out.format("Pi is approximately %d.", Math.PI);
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. Pi is approximately 3.
C. Pi is approximately 3.141593.
D. Compilation fails.
Answer: A

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23.DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Answer:
24.Given:
11. static class A {
12. void process() throws Exception { throw new Exception(); }
13. }
14. static class B extends A {
15. void process() { System.out.println("B "); }
16. }
17. public static void main(String[] args) {
18. A a = new B();
19. a.process();
20. }
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails because of an error in line 19.
B. An exception is thrown at runtime.
C. B
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 18.
E. Compilation fails because of an error in line 15.
F. The code runs with no output.
Answer: A

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25.Given:
1. interface A { public void aMethod(); }
2. interface B { public void bMethod(); }
3. interface C extends A,B { public void cMethod(); }
4. class D implements B {
5. public void bMethod(){}
6. }
7. class E extends D implements C {
8. public void aMethod(){}
9. public void bMethod(){}
10. public void cMethod(){}
11. }
What is the result?
A. If you define D e = new E(), then e.bMethod() invokes the version of bMethod() defined in Line 5.
B. If you define D e = (D)(new E()), then e.bMethod() invokes the version of bMethod() defined in Line 5.
C. Compilation fails because of an error in line 9.
D. If you define D e = (D)(new E()), then e.bMethod() invokes the version of bMethod() defined in Line 9.
E. Compilation fails because of an error in line 3.
F. Compilation fails because of an error in line 7.
Answer: D

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26.Click the Exhibit button.
What is the output of the program shown in the exhibit?
A. 300-300-100-100-100
B. 300-300-300-100-100
C. 300-300-300-300-100
D. 300-100-100-100-100
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which two code fragments correctly create and initialize a static array of int elements.? (Choose two.)
A. static final int[] a = { 100,200 };
B. static final int[] a;
static { a=new int[2]; a[0]=100; a[1]=200; }
C. static final int[] a;
static void init() { a = new int[3]; a[0]=100; a[1]=200; }
D. static final int[] a = new int[2]{ 100,200 };
Answer: A,B

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NO.17 public static class Point {}

NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
Given:
25. try {
26. A a = new A();
27. a.method1();
28. } catch (Exception e) {
29. System.out.print("an error occurred");
30. }
Which two statements are true if a NullPointerException is thrown on line 3 of class C? (Choose two.)
A. The application will crash.
B. The code on line 29 will be executed.
C. The code on line 5 of class A will execute.
D. The exception will be propagated back to line 27.
E. The code on line 5 of class B will execute.
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 class Triangle {

NO.20 System.out.print(" main x = " + x);

NO.21 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Answer:

NO.22 Given:
11. public static void main(String[] args) {
12. Object obj = new int[] { 1, 2, 3 };
13. int[] someArray = (int[])obj;
14. for (int i : someArray) System.out.print(i + " ");
15. }
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails because of an error in line 13.
B. A ClassCastException is thrown at runtime.
C. 1 2 3
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 14.
E. Compilation fails because of an error in line 12.
Answer: C

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NO.23 Given:
11. public class Yikes {
12.
13. public static void go(Long n) {System.out.println("Long ");}
14. public static void go(Short n) {System.out.println("Short ");}
15. public static void go(int n) {System.out.println("int ");}
16. public static void main(String [] args) {
17. short y = 6;
18. long z = 7;
19. go(y);
20. go(z);
21. }
22. }
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. int Long
C. Compilation fails.
D. Short Long
Answer: B

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NO.24 Given:
10. class One {
11. void foo() { }
12. }
13. class Two extends One {
14. //insert method here
15. }
Which three methods, inserted individually at line 14, will correctly complete class Two? (Choose three.)
A. public void foo() { /* more code here */ }
B. private void foo() { /* more code here */ }
C. protected void foo() { /* more code here */ }
D. int foo() { /* more code here */ }
E. void foo() { /* more code here */ }
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.25 Given:
11. class A {
12. public void process() { System.out.print("A,"); }
13. class B extends A {
14. public void process() throws IOException {
15. super.process();
16. System.out.print("B,");
17. throw new IOException();
18. }
19. public static void main(String[] args) {
20. try { new B().process(); }
21. catch (IOException e) { System.out.println("Exception"); }}
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails because of an error in line 14.
B. Exception
C. A,B,Exception
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 20.
E. A NullPointerException is thrown at runtime.
Answer: A

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NO.26 Given:
12. NumberFormat nf = NumberFormat.getInstance();
13. nf.setMaximumFractionDigits(4);
14. nf.setMinimumFractionDigits(2);
15. String a = nf.format(3.1415926);
16. String b = nf.format(2);
Which two statements are true about the result if the default locale is Locale.US? (Choose two.)
A. The value of b is 2.00.
B. The value of a is 3.141.
C. The value of a is 3.14.
D. The value of b is 2.0000.
E. The value of a is 3.1415.
F. The value of a is 3.1416.
G. The value of b is 2.
Answer: A,F

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NO.27 }

NO.28 Given:
11. public class ItemTest {
12. private final int id;
13. public ItemTest(int id) { this.id = id; }
14. public void updateId(int newId) { id = newId; }
15.
16. public static void main(String[] args) {
17. ItemTest fa = new ItemTest(42);
18. fa.updateId(69);
19. System.out.println(fa.id);
20. }
21. }
What is the result?
A. A new Item object is created with the preferred value in the id attribute.
B. The attribute id in the Item object is modified to the new value.
C. Compilation fails.
D. An exception is thrown at runtime.
E. The attribute id in the Item object remains unchanged.
Answer: C

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NO.29 p.doStuff(x);

NO.30

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NO.1 Your application uses the Java Persistence API to access a database. This application must reject
adding an instance to the database if it does NOT pass validation tests for values of two persistence
properties. The database contains some data that will NOT pass such validation. Only the new records
must be validated. Which option will achieve this behavior?
A. Add validation logic to the setter methods for each property.
B. Add the PrePersist callback method with all of the validation logic.
C. Add the PostPersist callback method with all of the validation logic.
D. Add PrePersist and PreUpdate callback methods with all of the validation logic.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A developer maps the abstract entity class Account with concrete entity suB. classes
CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount using the single table per class hierarchy strategy. Which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Instances of CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount are stored in the same table.
B. All columns that correspond to fields declared in Account must be defined as nullable in the database.
C. The fields declared in Account are stored in a different table than the ones declared in
CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount.
D. All columns that correspond to fields declared in CreditCardAccount or SavingsAccount must be
defined as nullable in the database.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 A developer wants to create a business interface for both local and remote usage. For
performance reasons the remote interface should NOT be called by a client in the same JVM.
Which statement is required to accomplish this, assuming there is no deployment descriptor?
A. The business methods are defined in one interface which must be annotated with both @Local and
@Remote.
B. The business methods are defined twice in one interface. One method is annotated with @Local and
the other is annotated with @Remote.
C. The business methods are defined in a common interface by two other interfaces which are annotated
with @Local and @Remote respectively. The bean implements the super interface.
D. The business methods are defined in a common interface. It is extended by two interfaces, annotated
with @Local and .Remote respectively. Both interfaces are implemented by the bean class.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The Java Persistence API defines the semantics of the remove operation and the entity lifecycle
states.
Which statement is true when the remove method is invoked on an entity X?
A. If X is a removed entity it becomes managed.
B. If X is a new entity it will be removed from the database.
C. The remove method is always cascaded to related entities.
D. If X is a detached entity an lllegalArgumentException will be thrown.
Answer: D

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NO.5 XYZ Software develops business components using both the EJB 2.1 and EJB 3.0 APIs. Some
customers are reluctant to completely migrate to the EJB 3.0 model, but are willing to have EJB 2.1
session beans invoke EJB 3.0 session beans.
How should XYZ Software enhance these components to meet this customer requirement?
A. Use @EJB to inject a reference to the EJB 3.0 business interface into the EJB 2.1 bean class.
B. Use <ejB. ref> in ejB. jar.xml for the EJB 2.1 bean to declare a reference to the EJB 3.0
business interface.
C. Add an EJB 3.0-style business interface to EJB 2.1 beans to achieve interoperability between EJB 2.1
and EJB 3.0 beans.
D. Use @RemoteHome and @LocalHome to adapt EJB 3.0 beans so that EJB 2.1 beans can look up the
adapted home interfaces using JNDI.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A Java EE 5 application contains a session bean which uses a security role USER. A group called
people is defined in an LDAP server. Which two define appropriate EJB role responsibilities? (Choose
two.)
A. The deployer defines and configures the LDAP realm.
B. The system administrator defines and configures the LDAP realm.
C. The deployer maps the application role USER to the LDAP group people
D. The system administrator maps the application role USER to the LDAP group people.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Which statement about the combination of mapping defaults, annotations, and XML descriptors is
correct?
A. All mapping annotations must always be processed by the persistence provider.
B. Some annotations, like the @Entity annotation, must always be processed by the persistence provider.
C. The mapping information for an entity class specified by annotations and in XML descriptors must be
distinct.
D. If multiple entity listeners are defined, the order in which they are invoked can be defined or overwritten
in the XML descriptor.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A developer is creating an entity which is mapped to a table that has a primary key constraint defined on
two character columns and would like to use mapping defaults as much as possible to simplify the code.
Which two mapping options can be chosen.? (Choose two.)
A. Use an @ld property that constructs a private field as a concatenation of two columns.
B. Use a separate class to map those two columns and use an @ldClass annotation to denote the primary
key field or property in the entity.
C. Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and use an @Embeddedld annotation
to denote a single primary key field or property in the entity.
D. Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and add two fields or
properties to the entity, each marked as @ld, that correspond to the fields or properties in the embeddable
class.
E. Use a separate class to map those two columns. Specify that class using @ldClass annotation on the
entity class. Add two fields or properties to the entity, each marked as @ld, that correspond to the fields or
properties in that separate class.
Answer: C,E

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NO.9 A stateful session bean contains a number of instance variables. The types of instance variables A and
B are NOT serializable. Instance variable B is a complex type which is populated by many business calls,
and can, therefore, NOT be refilled by the client without starting all over. A helper instance variable C is
defined as having a Serializable type, and can hold all the information which is in variable B. For example,
B is of type XML-DOM Tree and C of type String. Which two solutions, when combined, maintain the state
of the session bean over a passivation and activation by the container? (Choose two.)
A. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in the beans no-arg
constructor.
B. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a
@PostCreate annotated method.
C. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a
@PostActivate annotated method
D. Instance variable A must be made null and instance variable B must be converted to a
Serializable type and assigned to another instance variable in a @PreDestroy annotated method.
E. Instance variable A must be defined transient. Instance variable B must be converted to a Serializable
type, set to null, and assigned to the instance variable C in a @PrePassivate annotated method.
Answer: C,E

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NO.10 A developer wants to create a Java Persistence query that will include a subquery. Which three are
true? (Choose three.)
A. Subqueries can be used in a FROM clause.
B. Subqueries can be used in a WHERE clause.
C. The ANY expression can be used only with a subquery.
D. The EXISTS expression can be used only with a subquery
E. The MEMBER expression can be used only with a subquery.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.11 Bean Provider has been asked to write a stateless session bean, MyBean with a single method
breakout. A System Administrator guarantees that all clients accessing the bean will be identified by
mutual SSL authentication. The Bean Provider's task is to ensure that breakout always logs identity
information of the client that invoked it. Which solution would satisfy this requirement?
A. Access the identity information in the X.509 certificate used to authenticate the user from within
breakout.
B. Use the getCallerPrincipal method on an injected SessionContext to determine the required
information.
C. Use the isCallerlnRole method on an injected SessionContext to determine the required information.
D. Ensure that the breakout method is appropriately annotated with @RolesAllowed.
Answer: B

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NO.12 An Application Assembler is given the following stateless session bean:
10. @Stateless public class MyBean implements Mylnt {
11. @RolesAllowed("SECRET")
12. public void methodA(int x) {}
13. public void methodA(String y) {}
14. public void methodB(String z) {}
15.}
A deployment descriptor is also supplied, a portion of which reads as follows:
20. <methoD. permission> 21. <rolE. name>AGENT</rolE. name>
22. <method>
23. <ejB. name>MyBean</ejB. name>
24. <methoD. name>methodA</methoD. name>
25. </method>
26. </methoD. permission>
Which statement is true?
A. A client in any role will be able to access any of the methods.
B. A client in the role "AGENT" will be able to access any of the methods.
C. A client in the role "SECRET" will be able to access any of the methods.
D. A client in the role "AGENT" will be able to access methodB and methodA(String), but not
methodA(int).
E. A client in the role "SECRET" will be able to access methodA(int) and methodB, but NOT
methodA(String).
Answer: B

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NO.13 A User entity is in a onE. to-many relationship with a Book entity.
A developer writes a query to delete users that have a first name of 'Fred' or 'Ginger', and writes the
following Java Persistence query language statement:
DELETE FROM User u WHERE u.name IN ('Fred1, 'Ginger')
If the query fails with a PersistenceException, what can be the cause?
A. The syntax of the query is NOT correct.
B. The query causes a foreign key integrity constraint to be violated.
C. The database does NOT have any users with the name 'Fred' or 'Ginger'.
D. The entities corresponding to the users with the name 'Fred' or 'Ginger' are already being managed by
the persistence context.
Answer: B

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NO.14 A developer writes two session beans which cooperate. The first session bean, ShoppingCart, collects
orders and is implemented as a stateful session bean. The second session bean, CalculateDiscount, is
implemented as a stateless session bean and runs on a different server. ShoppingCart contains the
method getTotalPrice, which calculates the total price of the order in the ShoppingCart, including
discounts. Discounts are calculated by CalculateDiscount using the information on the ShoppingCart
bean, combined with data from a database. Which scenario can accomplish this?
A. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean passing
the this reference.
B. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean.
CalculateDiscount accesses the ShoppingCart instance by JNDI lookup.
C. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean passing
its reference obtained from the SessionContext.getBusinessObject method.
D. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean.
CalculateDiscount accesses the state of ShoppingCart by dependency injection.
Answer: C

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NO.15 A Java Persistence application uses entities mapped to tables from two datasources in the same
transaction.
What statement is correct?
A. This is NOT possible.
B. The entities must be packaged into two persistence units. C. The entities can be packaged into a single
persistence unit
D. The entities must be packaged using two different persistence.xml files.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Within a Java EE environment, which annotation can be used to inject an entity manager factory?
A. @Entity
B. @Factory
C. @JTAFactory
D. @PersistenceUnit
E. @PersistenceContext
Answer: D

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NO.17 A developer writes an enterprise application and packages it into an .ear file. The application contains
two persistence units defined at the .ear level with persistence unit names FooPU and BarPU. The
application also contains an ejB. jar with one stateless session bean. Which code, when added to the
stateless session bean class, injects an EntityManagerFactory at runtime?
A. @PersistenceUnit
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
B. @PersistenceContext
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
C. @PersistenceUnit(unitName="BarPU")
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
D. @Resource(name="BarPU",type=EntityManagerFactory.class)
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which two are true about EJB 3.0 exception classes? (Choose two.)
A. The javax.ejb.NoSuchEJBException is an application exception.
B. The javax.ejb.EJBException extends java.lang.RuntimeException.
C. The javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRequiredException is an application exception. D. An application
exception must NOT be a subclass of java.rmi.RemoteException.
E. The javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRolledbackException is an application exception.
F. Any subclass of java.lang.RuntimeException is always considered a system exception.
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 The Java Persistent API defines certain rules for persistent entities. These rules are required by the
persistent provider to manage entities at runtime.
Which statement is correct, assuming NO mapping descriptor is used?
A. Entities must extend a persistent base class.
B. Entities must implement the interface PersistentEntity to be managed by the persistent
provider.
C. A field without a transient modifier must be annotated as @Persistent to be stored in the database.
D. A field without a transient modifier must be annotated as @Transientto NOT be stored in the database.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. All types of enterprise beans can be transaction-aware
B. Typically, finE. grained objects, such as an employee record, should be remotely accessible.
C. The client view of any given enterprise bean will be consistent across all EJB 3.0 containers without the
need to recompile the bean.
D. As long as a given enterprise bean is NOT recompiled, its security attributes are guaranteed to be
consistent across all EJB 3.0 containers in which it is deployed.
Answer: A,C

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