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Exam Code: 132-S-916.2
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Specialist - IP Office Implement and Support Elective Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 188 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 An IP Office solution is sold to a customer who needs to connect two existing sites over their LAN.
Which two are required by Avaya to ensure the VoIP connection and calls work properly? (Choose two.)
A.firewall / filter
B.network assessment
C.a separate voice network
D.static addresses for the IP Office
Answer:B D

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NO.2 Recordings take up how much space on a hard drive?
A.2MB per minute
B.200KB per minute
C.1MB per minute
D.650KB per minute
Answer:C

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NO.3 An IP Office telephone user reports that a phone is not ringing for outside calls. What are three possible
reasons why this is happening? (Choose three.)
A.The IP Office locale is set to "A-Law".
B.The phone does not have the user profile logged onto the phone.
C.The ring volume is too low to hear.
D.The phone has been set to "Offhook Station".
E.The phone is set to "Do Not Disturb".
Answer:B C E

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NO.4 A customer reports that IP Office users cannot access voicemail at certain times. Avaya has requested
that the customer reproduce the issue and provide traces. Which three steps can the customer take to
reproduce the reported issue? (Choose three.)
A.The customer can place test calls into voicemail.
B.The customer can use the 'IP Office System Monitor" and VoiceMail Pro debug logs to record system
activity.
C.The customer can use System Monitor to "Call Sync" on all calls in the system.
D.The customer can reboot the IP Office to see if it resolves the issue.
E.The customer can record the date and time of the reported issue.
Answer:A B E

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NO.5 Which two operating systems are supported by VoiceMail Pro? (Choose two.)
A.Microsoft Windows 2000
B.Microsoft Windows XP
C.Microsoft Windows 98 SE
D.Microsoft Windows NT
Answer:A B

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NO.6 When installing IP Hardphones, the engineer wants to use the IEEE 802.3af standard to _____.
A.supply AC voltage to the IP Office
B.supply power to the IP Hardphones
C.perform Layer 3 routing for IP Hardphones
D.filter multicast traffic to the appropriate IP Hardphone
Answer:B

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NO.7 Which three options does the IMS user have available in Microsoft?Outlook? (Choose three.)
A.Select IMS server.
B.Select Voicemail Box.
C.Select Voicemail server.
D.Select handset for VM playback.
E.Prompt before connecting to server.
Answer:B D E

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NO.8 When configuring Session Initiated Protocol (SIP) trunks with SIP authorization using an IP address on
an IP Office system which option must be set in the SIP Line configuration form for the trunks to function
correctly?
A.The customer's NAT IP address must be entered on the SIP line form.
B.The Primary Authentication Name must be set.
C.The compression mode must be set to automatic.
D.The ITSP IP address must be entered on the SIP line form.
Answer:D

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NO.9 An IP Office application will allow an individual to select protocols and interfaces that are to be traced
and decoded. The trace can either be captured directly to screen or as a log file for later analysis. Traces
from different protocols can be color coded to improve the clarity of large log files. Which application is
used for this?
A.Debug View
B.System Monitor
C.Delta Server
D.System Status Application
Answer:B

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NO.10 A customer wants to have a simple conference bridge with four permanent bridges set up off of a menu
in VoiceMail Pro. The customer also wants each bridge protected with a different static PIN. Where in the
setup of this scenario would you enter the PIN?
A.on the General tab in the menu action
B.on the General tab for each transfer action
C.on the Telephone Number field in the IP Office Short Code
D.in the Properties box for each option in the Touch Tone tab in the menu action
Answer:B

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NO.11 Which three pieces of information does System Status Application provide? (Choose three.)
A.configuration errors
B.local IP Office license status
C.trunk status
D.extension status
E.remote IP Office license statu
Answer:B C D

Avaya   132-S-916.2   132-S-916.2

NO.12 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, what would the default gateway for IP Office 1 be?
A.10.10.1.1
B.10.10.1.2
C.192.168.10.100
D.135.122.34.90
Answer:D

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NO.13 Your customer has an IP Office 412 system running version 4.2 where calls at times ring to wrong
extension numbers. Which three steps would you take to reproduce or validate the issue? (Choose three.)
A.Use System Status Application to watch the call progress to verify which extension the call is ringing to
and why.
B.Use System Monitor and the Call / Packet information to follow the call progress to identify the issue.
C.Use the telephone's display for the extension that is incorrectly ringing to determine how the call was
routed.
D.Use the Call Status application to watch the call progress to verify how the call is being routed and to
what extension it is being directed to.
E.Use the IP Office Manager application to verify that the VoiceMail call flow is configured correctly.
Answer:A B C

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NO.14 Your customer has a single PRI installed on their IP Office system and they are reporting issues dialing
out. They are getting dead air and dropped calls. Which three can be enabled within the System Monitor
tool to troubleshoot the issue? (Choose three.)
A.ISDN / Events / Layer 1
B.ISDN / Packets / Layer 3 send & receive
C.System / Error
D.Call / Packets / Line Send
E.T1 / Line
Answer:A B C

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NO.15 Which Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) options are available in the IP Office?
A.Disabled, Enabled
B.Server, Enabled, Client
C.Server, Disabled, Client, DialIn
D.Server, Client, Disabled
Answer:C

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NO.16 When using SIP or H.323 trunks and the System Status Application, which three problems can be
tested using the System Status Application? (Choose three.)
A.round trip delay
B.receive jitter
C.receive packet loss
D.Quality of Service (QoS) value
E.DSCP QoS value
Answer:A B C

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NO.17 A customer using an IP Office system with a single PRI line is reporting difficulties when dialing out.
What are two reasons for this happening? (Choose two.)
A.There are not sufficient channels available for the number of callers on the system.
B.The PRI clock quality is set to Network instead of Fallback.
C.The PRI clock quality is set to Fallback instead of Network.
D.The internal CSU is enabled.
Answer:A C

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NO.18 What is necessary to upgrade the firmware for the 4600/5600 series sets on an IP Office system?
A.Manager
B.serial cable
C.third-party FTP server
D.null modem cable
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which file validates the version of software that is to be loaded into the 4600 Series Telephone set?
A.bbla0_83.scr
B.46xxsettings.txt
C.46xxsettings.scr
D.46xxupgrade.scr
Answer:D

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NO.20 You have an Avaya IP 412 Office with the largest supported voice compression modules (VCMs) on
the system. What is the maximum number of data channels supported on this system?
A.20
B.50
C.80
D.100
Answer:D

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Exam Code: 132-S-911
Exam Name: Avaya (Specialist IP Telephony Implement and Support Elective Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 199 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 .Your customer asks you to verify the current subnet mask assigned to a remote Avaya G700
Media Gateway P330 stack management interface. Which command should you use to obtain this
information?
A. Session stack
B. Show interface
C. Show interface mgp
D. Show interface stack manager
Answer: A

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NO.2 .Which is a characteristic of a global VLAN ID?
A. Must have at least five digits
B. Can vary from one device to another
C. Supports QoS between multi-vendor WAN/LANs
D. Remains consistent across all VLAN tagging schemes
Answer: C

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NO.3 .You have an S8720 Server optioned for Software Duplication. Which Ethernet port is the
Duplication Link assigned to?
A. Ethernet 1
B. Ethernet 2
C. Ethernet 3
D. Ethernet 4
Answer: A

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NO.4 .DHCP option codes 128 to 254 are reserved for site-specific options. A single number out of this
range is commonly utilized by vendors to configure their Avaya IP phones via DHCP (Option 176).
Which additional option code supports vendor-specific options?
A. 3
B. 23
C. 43
D. 63
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two Avaya Communication Manager commands display the VoIP statistics of a specific
extension active on call? (Choose two.)
A. Status station
B. Display station
C. List trace station
D. Display trace station
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two statements about VoIP Monitoring Manager are true? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP Monitoring Manager is a GUI-based tool that can chart historical graphs of audio
performance on VoIP endpoints
B. VoIP Monitoring Manager can be used to troubleshoot VoIP endpoints registration problems
and call signaling problems
C. the reporting interval of VoIP Monitoring Manager can be varied depending on the required
granularity of the performance statistics
D. VoIP Monitoring Manager is a text-based tool that has the look and feel of a CLI and can be
embedded into Cajun switches as an add-on feature
Answer: B

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NO.7 .A G450 Media Gateway can be controlled directly from an Avaya Server S8500C. What is the
associated license file functionality that needs to be included?
A. Processor Ethernet (PE)
B. PNC Duplication
C. Port Network Support
D. Processor and System MSP

NO.8 .When configuring site specific option number (SSON) in DHCP server for an Avaya IP telephone,
"MCIPADD" is the address of the H.323 gatekeeper's IP address. In an Avaya IP telephony
solution, which component acts as the H.323 gatekeeper?
A. IPSI
B. S87xx Server
C. CLANs or S8300 Server
D. Router in the data network
Answer: B

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NO.9 .Which two statements are true about DHCP? (Choose two.)
A. A DHCP server is required to configure all Avaya IP telephones
B. A DHCP server can be used to send the DNS server address to the client
C. One DHCP server is required for each subnet containing clients that require the service
D. A DHCP server is used to send an IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway address to
the client
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 .In an IP Connect configuration, with hardware duplication, a customer has implemented
separation of the control network. What Ethernet port should be assigned to this control network?
A. Ethernet 0
B. Ethernet 1
C. Ethernet 2
D. Ethernet 3

NO.11 .You are working with the powerful concept of a network region section. Which three parameters
can be set on the IP network region screen? (Choose three.)
A. H.323 endpoint
B. SIP enabled endpoints
C. hairpinning and shuffling
D. UDP port range parameters
E. QoS parameters such as DiffServ/TOS and 802.1p/Q
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.12 .Which two parameters are found in an H.323 Signaling Group form? (Choose two.)
A. QoS parameters
B. A default gateway
C. The far-end network region
D. A TN799 C-LAN for call signaling
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 Prior to putting the system into service, you test the Local Survivable Processor (LSP) failover
capability on the G700 Media Gateway with an S8300 Server. If you unplug the network
connection to the G700 Media Gateway the G700 Media Gateway does not search for a
secondary CLAN or any other LSP. What should you do to ensure that LSP failover has been
properly configured? (Choose two.)
A. You should refresh the IP address
B. You should check the controller IP address
C. You should check the LSP transition points
D. You should run session mgc to bring up the Show Call Control Status screen
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 .You are migrating from a Definity server to an S8500/S87XX server. Where is the IPSI board
located?
A. It is always placed into slot number 1.
B. The location depends on which media server is used.
C. It can be slotted into any available media gateway slot.
D. The location depends on which media gateway is used.
Answer: C

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NO.15 .In an Enterprise Survivable Server (ESS) scenario, how do you save translations to your ESS
server?
A. Savetrans
B. Savetrans all
C. Save ESS settings
D. Savetrans cluster ESS
Answer: A

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NO.16 .You have a Communication Manager R3 1 phone system with all IP phones and there is no dial
tone. You verify that all of the hardware is working properly. Which two steps can you take to
identify the cause of the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the MedPro board has the correct IP settings
B. Set a static IP address on you laptop and see if you can ping the TN799
C. Set a static IP address on your laptop and see if you can ping the TN2312
D. Set a static IP address on your laptop and see if you can ping the TN2302 or TN2602
Answer: C

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NO.17 .Which Communication Manager (CM) feature utilizes PSTN connectivity when IP WAN bandwidth
limit has been reached?
A. Inter-Gateway Alternate Routing
B. Intra-Gigabit Analytical Resource
C. Intelligent Global Access Routing
D. Intelligent Gatekeeper Associated Routes

NO.18 .A company purchases the right to use Avaya IP Softphone for 100 stations. The users complain
that the call center buttons (AUX, After-Call, Login, and Logout) programmed on their stations no
longer work as expected. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. TCP/UDP port blockage in the corporate WAN
B. Improper administration of the stations in the PBX
C. Users trying to use the application for non-supported functions
D. Improper installation of the Avaya IP Softphone application on the users' PCs
Answer: B

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NO.19 .An Avaya IP phone is connected over a WAN link to the main office where the TN799 CLAN and
TN2302 IP Media Processor are located. The Avaya IP phone is registered properly on the CLAN.
A DCP phone calls the Avaya IP phone and the call is answered. The audio quality is poor in both
directions, but the call stays up until one of the users disconnects. Which two conditions cause this
audio quality problem? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient IP media processor resources
B. Use of the G.711 codec to transmit audio over the WAN link
C. Implementing Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) on the edge router
D. Intermittent connectivity between the Avaya IP phone and the CLAN
Answer: A,B

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NO.20 .A customer has purchased 20 Avaya IP telephones over a period of three years. Knowing that the
IEEE 802.3af standard has been ratified, the customer decided to purchase a C360-PWR switch
to provide in-line power to the IP telephones. However, only 15 of the phones power up when they
are connected to the C360-PWR. Upon investigation you discover the five phones which would not
receive power from C360-PWR are Generation 1 models that are not 802.3af compliant. Which
three methods should you use to power these phones? (Choose three.)
A. 356A adapter
B. Individual power brick
C. 1152A1 mid-span unit with adapter
D. Other vendor 802.3af compliant device
E. IP phone 4600 Ethernet 30A base switch
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.21 .What color is the LED when a TN circuit pack is executing a test?
A. Red
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Amber
Answer: B

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NO.22 .Your customer is unable to light message waiting lights at a small branch office using a shared
Intuity voice mail system on a QSIG network running DCS. What is the first command you should
execute?
A. list ip-interfaces
B. list media-gateway
C. display-ip-network-region <x>
D. status station <station number>
Answer: C

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NO.23 .A customer is using Avaya 4600 Series IP Telephones on an Avaya S87xx Server using several
TN799DP (CLAN) and TN2302 (Medpro) cards. Telephones located at a remote site are unable to
register with the CLAN. The CLAN can ping and be pinged. Which two commands or
troubleshooting methods can identify the problem? (Choose two.)
A. List sys-link
B. Status station
C. Listtrace ras station
D. Use a network sniffer between the phone and the network
Answer: B,C

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NO.24 Within a single Avaya Communication Manager 4.0, how can you have conflicting four digit
extensions for separate locations in a four digit plan?
A. You insert an additional digit on the incoming trunk group form
B. You enter a different UDP code on the dial plan analysis form and take it off in the incoming
trunk group
C. You enter an extra digit on the dial-plan analysis and delete a digit in the routing pattern
D. You enter X where x is the location number on the uniform dial plan and prefix an additional first
digit; the changed number matches in AAR analysis and goes to a pattern
Answer: C

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NO.25 .In an S87xx MultiConnect, Port Network 18 has no IPSI. Which command will show the IPSI that
is in control of that Port Network?
A. Status fiber 18
B. List ipserver-interface
C. Status port-network 18
D. Status sys-link 18a0101 current
Answer: C

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Avaya 6203.1 exam pdf dumps

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Exam Code: 6203.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Voice Portal Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 Which statement about Auxiliary VPMS is true?
A. Only one Auxiliary VPMS server can be added per Voice Portal 5.1 or newer system.
B. More than one Auxiliary VPMS server can be added per Voice Portal 5.1 or newer system.
C. Auxiliary VPMS can be installed on a single server Voice Portal system.
D. Auxiliary VPMS can be installed co-resident with MPP server.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A technician cannot see the VPMS web interface. What is the first thing that should be done?
A. Restart all MPPs that are connected to the VPMS.
B. Reload the VPMS software.
C. Make sure that Axis is running.
D. Make sure that Tomcat is running.
Answer: D

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NO.3 In addition to the Project Overview, Standard service hours, Call Center Telephony Review, Call Center
Reporting Review, which other service is included in the Statement of Word (SOW) component of a
project?
A. Call Center Development Services
B. Call Center Programming Services
C. Call Center Leadership Services
D. Call Center Consultant Services
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why is the "Hot word" Barge-in mechanism used?
A. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance is caught on that prompt
B. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word defined in the
grammar
C. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word defined in the
grammar and the decision is defined
D. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word defined in the
prompt
Answer: C

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NO.5 From the VPMS web interface, which menu path should be followed, to view the current status of all
MPP servers and get detailed information about any alarms they have generated?
A. System Configuration > System Monitor
B. System Configuration > MPP Management
C. Real-Time Monitoring > Monitor System
D. Teal-Time Monitoring > System Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer is using skills-based routing. Which Acaya Aura CM forms must be administered to map the
requirements to agents/ports?
A. Vector and Agent LoginID forms
B. Hunt Group and Skill forms
C. Skill and Agent LoginID forms
D. Vector and Split forms
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two methods can be used to initiate a Voice Portal 5 x Primary VPMS restore? (Choose two.)
A. system restore page in VPMS web administration
B. do_RestoreData -f /opt/Avaya/backup
C. restorempplogs.sh
D. do_MntDrv do_RestoreData -f /opt/Avaya/backup/remotesvr
Answer: BD

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NO.8 What is the last step to be completed before testing the initialization and configuration?
A. Start the MPPs.
C. Stop the MPPS.
C. Start Applications.
D. Stop Applications.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer has just upgraded Voice Portal to a newer version, but the license is not upgraded. What is
the grace period provided by the system, for upgrading the license?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer is planning to deploy a Voice Portal solution, and wants to make sure they have considered
all aspects of their implementation design components. As a key component of the implementation, which
documents are included in the Document Review?
A. Deep Drive Results, Equipment List, Customer List, and SOW
B. Customer Scenario, Equipment List, SOW and Deep Dive Results
C. Customer Scenario, Hardware List, Deep Dive Results and SOW
D. Customer List, Hardware List, SOW and the Equipment List
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 6207.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura Contact Recording and Avaya Aura® Quality Monitoring Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM) software on a
client site, and needs to configure the software. The Avaya QM solution is being deployed as a single
server solution. As part of the configuration the Voice Cards must be specified.
Which kind of voice card should be created?
A. Dialogic D/240JCT
B. Dialogic D/82JCT
C. VR1000
D. Dialogic DSE DL-300x
Answer: B

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NO.2 A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM) software on a
client site, and needs to configure the Software. What needs to be configured at level1?
A. Switches
B. Data Connections
C. Servers
D. Sites
Answer: D

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NO.3 A technician is installing Avaya Aura Viewer on a large customer site with 500 recording channels. The
customer has an existing SQL database that they want to use. What would be the correct option for this?
A. Put the database and Viewer on the same server.
B. Put the Viewer on a separate server.
C. Put the Avaya Contact Recording Master (with no IP recording), the TDM Recorder, the database and
the Viewer on the same server.
D. Put the database, the Viewer, and the Avaya Aura Archive on the same server.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A technician has configured one Avaya Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) system to be used only 1
Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM). Everything has been configured under the "Operation/Quality
Monitoring" tab in the Avaya CR administration window, and the "link to Quality" shows UP on the
"Recorder Status/Server" window. After a few calls are made, it is discovered that no calls are being
recorded correctly.
What are two possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
A. The field "Can he Service Observed" is set to "N" for the Class of Restriction (COR) assigned the
recorder ports. The field "Can be a Service Observer" is set to "N" for the COR assigned to the extension
b-ordered.
B. The field "Can be Service Observed" is set to "N" for the COR for the agent logged in on the extension
being recorded.
C. The field "Can be a Service Observer" is set to "N" for the COR assigned to the recorder ports.
D. The field "Can be Service Observed" Is set to "N" for the COR assigned to the extension being
recorded.
Answer: CD

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NO.5 A technician has just installed an Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) system that uses Station Bulk
Recording, the customer has provided the list of extensions, login IDs and skills that need to be recorded,
and the technician wants to try one first to validate the configuration.
Which statement describes how to verify that the system is configured correctly.?
A. Add one of the agent login IDs in the table "Station to be Recorder" under "Operation/Station Bulk|
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one the recorder ports has been assigned to the
extension where the agent is logged in, and that the state shows "Connected".
B. Add one of the extensions in the table "Station to be Recorder"under "Operation/Station Bulk
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one of the recorder ports has been assigned to
the extension, and that the state shows "Connected".
C. No extensions in the system need to be configured as they will automatically be picked up by the
system, once the field "Filter Calls by VDN and/or Skill Hunt Group" under Operation/ Station Bulk
Recording" has been populated with the skills provided.
D. Add one of the extensions in the table "Station to be Recorder" under "Operation/Station Bulk
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one of the recorder ports has been assigned to
the extension, and that the state shows "Idle".
Answer: B

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NO.6 It is stronglyrecommendedto install theRedHatoperatingsystem (OS) from the kickstartfile(ks.cfg).
Which three components are necessary to create a ks.cfg file using the kickstarttool? (Choose three)
A. The IP addresses of the network interfaces
B. The name of extraRedHat Package manager (RPM) packages tobe installed
C. TheMAC address of the NetworkInterface Card(NIC) Eth0
D. The IP address of the Network Timeprotocol (NTP)server
E. The/var partition size
Answer: ADE

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NO.7 While waiting to activate an Avaya Aura Contact recording (Avaya CR) license, some tests are run with
the five-day license. Once the full license is obtained, what is the path to update the Avaya CR to the full
license?
A. System > License > Change License
B. System > Manage Users > Change License
C. General Setup > Recorder > License
D. General Setup > Recorder > Key Management Server
Answer: A

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NO.8 You have just installed one Avaya Aura viewer system and have made some test calls that appear to
have been recorded successfully by the Avaya Aura Contact Recoding (Avaya CR) system. While being
recorded, one of the test calls was put on and then taken of hold. When you run a query using Avaya CR
"Search and replay" you expect to __________ and when you run a query from Viewer, in the Viewer
query Results Windows you expect to _______ for the same call.
A. see two segments which can be connected by means of Universal Call ID (UCID) and you will have to
listen to two audio files; see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file playing the whole
conversation
B. see two segments which can be connected by means of UCID and you will have to listen to two audio
files; see two segments and you will hear two audio files playing
C. see one segment and you will hear one audio file that stops playing right after the call has b-put on hold;
see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file playing the whole conversation
D. see two segments which can be connected by means of UCID and you will have to listen to two audio
files; see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file stopping right after the call has been put
on hold
Answer: A

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NO.9 A technician has installed a now Avaya Aura Viewer server and configured It to store data coming from
five different Avaya Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) systems. The technician has created just a query
for testing functionality and is able to retrieve calls and play them. The customer was called for
information but they notice that there are no calls associated to one of the Avaya CRs (name ver2).
What are two possible causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The query has not been released to Server2.
B. Server2 is a standby recorder for one of the other Avaya CRs, so it did not record any calls ' time
intervals the query was fun.
C. Server2 was not included as a "Capture Platform" into the Viewer Administration page.
D. Grant rights were not granted to the customer for Server2.
E. Server2 was not included as a "Location" in the Viewer Administration page.
Answer: AC

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NO.10 A technicianhas finished installing an Avaya Aura Archive system thathas been addedto an
existingsolution, consisting of three Avaya Aura Contact Recording(Avaya CR) servers and one Avaya
AuraViewer system. Before startingthe Archive, what can be done toensure that calls canbe archived?
A. fromAuraarchive server, ping each of the Avaya CR servers by means of the name configured inthe
"Machine Name"fieldinthe"Capture Platform Information" windowinside theViewerapplication.
B. FromArchiveserver, ping each Avaya CR servers by means oftheirIp-addresses.
C. Check thatthe EWareCalls databasewas createdduring archive installation.
D. Verify from the"Recorder Status/Server" window on the AvayaCR thatthe "Linkto Viewer" field
isshowing "UP".
Answer: A

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Exam Code: JN0-360
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-SP))
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Total Q&A: 252 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 You have been asked to define a default gateway for traffic leaving a router. This route should use
interface so-0/0/0 as its next-hop.Which type of route would be suited for this scenario?
A.a static route
B.a generated route
C.a martian route
D.an aggregate route
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which BGP state denotes a fully operational session?
A.Established
B.Active
C.Operational
D.Connect
Answer: A

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button
In the exhibit, OSPF routers R1, R2, R3, and R4 come up, in order, at 1-minute intervals
Which router will be the designated router?.
A.R1
B.R2
C.R3
D.R4
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are logged into a router and have navigated to the [edit routing-options] level of the hierarchy. You
have been asked to create a static route that will use 43 18 7 1 as its primary next-hop and 76 1310 2 as
its secondary next-hop.
Which command correctly configures this setup?
A.set static route 0/0 76.13.10.2 qualified-next-hop 43.18.7.1 pref 10
B.set static route 0/0 next-hop 43.18.7.1 secondary-next-hop 76.13.10.2 preference 10
C.set static route 0/0 next-hop [76.13.10.2 10.10.10.5] pref 10
D.set static route 0/0 next-hop 43.18.7.1 qualified-next-hop 76.13.10.2 preference 10
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which role does the router ID (RID) have in the BGP route selection process?
A.The router ID is evaluated immediately after MED to determine route preference
B.The router ID is evaluated last in the route selection process
C.The router ID is evaluated after the cluster length and a lower router ID is chosen
D.The router ID is evaluated after analyzing the IGP metric cost
Answer: C

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button
Based on the illustration of the VPLS topology shown in the exhibit, which statement is true?
A.PE-C must have a spanning-tree protocol enabled
B.CE-C must have BGP enabled
C.Traffic forwarded from PE-C to PE-A is forwarded on to PE-B
D.Traffic forwarded from PE-C to PE-A is not forwarded on to PE-B
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have configured an IP-IP tunnel between Router A and Router B
Which Junos operational mode command is used to verify that the tunnel interface is up and operational?
A.show chassis tunnel status
B.show tunnel interface
C.show interfaces terse
D.show interfaces tunnel
Answer: C

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NO.8 You have been asked to configure an IPv6 address for a group of interfaces that could belong on
different routers. If a packet is sent to that address, it should be received by all routers in the group.
Which address type would be suited for these requirements?
A.Unicast
B.Multicast
C.Anycast
D.Broadcast
Answer: B

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NO.9 You have recently implemented a graceful Routing-Engine switchover (GRES) and want to further
reduce down time if a Routing Engine (RE) failure occurs.
Which two features can be configured on this device to reduce its downtime in this situation? (Choose
two)
A.VRRP
B.GR
C.BFD
D.NSR
Answer: B D

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NO.10 Which Junos operational mode command is used to verify that load balancing is working as expected?
A.show route all
B.show route extensive
C.show route balancing
D.show route forwarding-table
Answer: D

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NO.11 You must configure an OSPF area that does not accept type 3 link-state advertisements (LSAs) from
area 0 (other than the default route) You have configured your area to be stub, but you still see type 3
LSAs.
What will account for this behavior?
A.You should have configured your area as totally stubby
B.You should have used a not-so-stubby-area
C.You are experiencing a routing loop
D.You have exported routes into OSPF
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which two statements describe differences between IPv4 and IPv6.? (Choose two)
A.IPsec is built into IPv6
B.IPv6 uses a 32-bit (4-byte) address and can support up to 4,294,967,296 addresses
C.IPv4 supports extension headers whereas IPv6 options are integrated into the base
D.IPv6 eliminates the need for NAT
Answer: AD

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button
You work for the regional Internet service provider shown in the exhibit You have a partial BGP table and
are receiving a 10 100/16 route from your upstream ISP You have been asked to configure a default route
that can be sent to your downstream customer This route should forward customer traffic toward your
upstream Tier 11SP as long as the 10.100/16 route is present.
What would accomplish this goal?
A.Create and announce an aggregate default route
B.Create and announce a static default route with a next-hop of discard
C.Create and announce a static default route with a next-hop of reject
D.Create and announce a generated default route
E.Create an advertise-map with exist-map
Answer: E

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button
Referring to the network illustrated in the exhibit, how does router A reach destinations in area 49.2222?
A.Router A will use the routes from area 49.2222; it learns from router B
B.Router A will see the attached bit from router B and create a default route
C.Router A must have a default route manually configured
D.Router A will receive a default route in the IS-IS update from router B
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two values displayed in the output from the show spanning-tree MSTP configuration command
must match on all switches participating in the same MSTP region? (Choose two)
A.root bridge identifier
B.authentication checksum
C.context identifier
D.configuration digest
Answer: CD

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NO.16 You are logged into a router and have navigated to the (edit routing-options] level of the hierarchy. You
have been asked to create a static route that will use 10.10.10.1 as its primary next-hop and 10.10.10.5
as its secondary next-hop.
Which command correctly configures this scenario?
A.set static route 8/8 10.10.10.1 qualified-next-hop 10.10.10.5 pref 10
B.set static route 8/8 next-hop 10.10.10.1 secondary-next-hop 10.10.10.5 preference 10
C.set static route 8/8 next-hop 10.10.10.1 qualified-next-hop 10.10.10.5 preference 10
D.set static route 8/8 next-hop [10.10.10.1 10.10.10.5] pref 10
Answer: C

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NO.17 What are two valid actions that can be applied to a frame by a Layer 2 firewall filter?
(Choose two)
A.Log
B.loss-priority
C.sample
D.count
Answer: BD

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NO.18 What is the function of the hop limit field in the IPv6 header?
A.It limits the diameter of the network to 20 hops
B.It sets the number of hops in the network to be equal to the MPLS header time-to-live (TTL)
C.It replaces the time-to-live (TTL) field in IPv4
D.It represents future extensibility to the protocol
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which IS-IS packet is used to determine the level of an IS-IS neighbor?
A.IIH
B.LSP
C.PSNP
D.CSNP
Answer: A

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NO.20 Router A is an OSPF router connected to both Area 0 and Area 1 Area 1 has been configured as a stub
area Which two LSA types does Router A suppress from Area 1 ?
A.Router LSA
B.External LSA
C.Summary LSA
D.ASBR Summary LSA
Answer: B D

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Exam Code: JN0-355
Exam Name: Juniper (Junos Pulse Secure Access, Specialist (JNCIS-SA))
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Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which two statements describe the Content Intermediation Engine (CIE)? (Choose two.)
A.The CIE is responsible for the redirect function.
B.The CIE is responsible for processing incoming requests and outgoing content.
C.The CIE rewrites Web content.
D.The CIE rewrites application content using Junos Pulse.
Answer:AC

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NO.2 What does Secure Virtual Workspace (SVW) provide?
A.a virtual desktop on a client desktop
B.protected file storage on a remote server
C.a protected workspace on a client virtual machine
D.a protected workspace on the client desktop
Answer:B

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NO.3 What does Junos Pulse Collaboration provide?
A.group instant messaging services
B.Web-based meeting services
C.corporate file sharing services
D.conference call services
Answer:C

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NO.4 Which Junos Pulse Secure Access Service component controls the user login URL mapping to
the
appropriate backend authentication service?
A.authentication server
B.authentication realm
C.resource policy
D.sign-in policy
Answer:D

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NO.5 How are user role-mapping rules processed by the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service gateway?
A.All rules are processed in a top-down fashion for the best match. If no match is found, the user is
not
allowed to sign in to the realm.
B.All rules are processed in a top-down fashion for the best match. If no match is found, the user is
assigned to the default role.
C.All rules are processed in a top-down fashion for all eligible matches. If no match is found, the
user is
not allowed to sign into the realm.
D.All rules are processed in a top-down fashion for all eligible matches. If no match is found, the
user is
assigned to the default role.
Answer:D

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Exam Code: JN0-694
Exam Name: Juniper (Enterprise Routing and Switching Support, Professional (JNCSP-ENT))
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Total Q&A: 36 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 You are having problems redistributing RIP routes into OSPF. Your Junos device has the
following configuration:
[edit protocols ospf]
user@router# show
import my-policy;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/ 0/ 0.0;
interface ge-0/ 0/ ;
interface ge-0/ 0/ {
passive;
}
}
What would resolve the problem?
A. Apply my-policy as an export policy under the [edit protocols rip] hierarchy.
B. Apply my-policy as an import policy under the [edit protocols rip] hierarchy.
C. Apply my-policy as an export policy under the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.
D. Use the area-range parameter instead of a routing policy.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Two neighboring routers are able to form an OSPF adjacency, but are not able to establish an
IBGP neighborship.
What are two reasons for the IBGP neighborship problem? (Choose two.)
A. One of the devices has a misconfigured BGP peer address.
B. One or both of the connected interfaces are missing the family iso statement.
C. OSPF has a lower route preference than BGP .
D. A firewall filter on one of the interfaces is blocking TCP traffic.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Your switch is experiencing a problem where a port that should have only one host connected
occasionally shows that multiple MAC addresses are being learned.
Which configuration setting would ensure that no extra hosts can join the network using this switch
port?
A. mac-limit
B. no-mac-learning
C. persistent-learning
D. bpdu-block-on-edge
Answer: D

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NO.4 Your Layer 2 network uses VLAN IDs 100 through 400 and you are required to load-balance
these VLANs between two different root bridges. You are currently using the default RSTP settings
and notice that all VLANs are using the same root bridge.
How do you ensure the VLANs are load-balanced between two root bridges?
A. Configure MSTP with two MSTI regions and split the VLAN range between them.
B. Configure VSTP with two VLAN groups and split the VLAN range between them.
C. Configure two RSTP instances and split the VLAN range between them.
D. Configure STP and RSTP and split the VLAN range between them.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You observe that a router is using an unusually high amount of CPU cycles.
You determine that continuous SPF calculations in OSPF are being performed.
What are two reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The wrong authentication keys between the OSPF neighbors are used.
B. The interface MTU is mismatched between the OSPF neighbors.
C. There are duplicate router IDs within the OSPF area.
D. An OSPF adjacency is flapping.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 You are implementing Q-in-Q tunneling on an EX Series switch. You want the tunnel to support
all C-VLANs; however, only some VLANs are able to send traffic across the tunnel.
Switch-1 has the following configuration:
[edit vlans]
user@Switch-1# show
v100 {
vlan-id 100;
interface {
ge-0/ 0/ 0.10;
ge-0/ 0/1.20;
}
dot1q-tunneling {
customer-vlans [ ];
}
}
What would solve this problem?
A. Add family ethernet-switching to the tunnel-side interface on Switch-1.
B. Implement RSTP .
C. Q-in-Q tunneling will not work in this scenario; use a Layer 2 VPN instead.
D. Remove the customer-vlans statement.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are troubleshooting a problem where an OSPF adjacency between two neighboring
routers will not form.
What are two reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. One or both of the connected interfaces are missing the family inet statement.
B. One or both of the connected interfaces are missing the family iso statement.
C. The connected interfaces are not on the same subnet.
D. Another IGP is running on one or both of the routers, overriding OSPF.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Your Junos device is dropping certain traffic flows, while allowing other traffic flows to pass
through the device unaffected.
Which CoS component is causing this problem?
A. BA classification
B. RED
C. MF classification
D. Rewrite rules
Answer: D

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