2013年12月31日星期二

HP certification HP0-Y24 the latest examination questions and answers come out

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Exam Code: HP0-Y24
Exam Name: HP (Securing HP ProCurve Networks)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which role does the authenticator play in the 802.1X authentication process?
A. It encapsulates an EAP-access-request inside of a RADIUS response-identity packet and forwards it
for validation.
B. It creates and sends an access-challenge message to the supplicant to request client credentials.
C. It provides two-way translation between EAP messages and RADIUS messages.
D. It validates the EAP-identity-request and responds with either an accept or reject message.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which infrastructure defense capabilities are provided by the ProCurve ProActive Defense network
security solution? (Select two.)
A. vulnerability assessment database
B. connection rate filtering
C. spoofing protection of DHCP traffic
D. managed security services
E. phishing protection
Answer: BC

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Which image in the exhibit shows an invalid NIM + IDS deployment?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement is correct about the threat mitigation capabilities of ProCurve NIM?
A. NIM can apply a threat mitigation action to supported infrastructure devices.
B. NIM can mitigate threats detected by NBAD, but must only log other threats.
C. NIM can detect threats but relies on an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) to mitigate them.
D. NIM can mitigate threats from wired offenders, but not wireless offenders.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Network security can be described in terms of multiple layers of security. Which security layer does an
unauthorized VLAN correspond to?
A. network access control
B. network immunity protection
C. control protocol detection
D. device-to-device authentication
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the default state of a Port Access Entity configured for IEEE 802.1X port-access
authentication?
A. disabled
B. authorized
C. restricted
D. idle
E. unauthorized
Answer: E

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NO.7 Network security can be described in terms of multiple layers of security. The DHCP Spoofing and
Dynamic ARP Protection features correspond to which layer?
A. infrastructure protection
B. network immunity protection
C. device-to-device authentication
D. network access control
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which statement is correct about the ProCurve ProActive Defense strategy?
A. It operates at a safe distance from the points of attack and the network resources being attacked.
B. It achieves better-performing, more scalable networks by using high capacity core resources.
C. It enforces access and policy decisions where users and applications connect to the network.
D. It creates a cost-effective management framework by using core infrastructure protection measures.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the intended purpose of the default traffic sampling action?
A. to help PCM+/NIM periodically begin to monitor new ports
B. to prevent ProCurve NIM from triggering false positives
C. to send traffic for increased analysis to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. to allow ProCurve NIM to take immediate action against the most probable threats
Answer: A

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
Which alert shown in the exhibit is the least sensitive?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-B44
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Supplies 2009)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 42 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Name two sales and marketing programs for HP Supplies.
A. HP Pay For Print program and HP Corporate Supplies program
B. HP Recycle Cash-back program and HP Rent For Print program
C. HP Low Carbon Footprint Program and HP New Customer Explorer program
D. HP SMB Supplies program and HP Commercial Supplies Outsourced Marketing
Answer: A

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NO.2 Who are the most valuable customers (MVC) in Small Medium businesses for HP Supplies?
A. food suppliers and caterers
B. oil retailers and HP mono LaserJet users
C. advertising agencies and color printouts
D. logistics companies and mono HP mfp users
Answer: C

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NO.3 How many years can HP LTO-3 tapes survive in a vault?
A. 10 years
B. 15 years
C. 30 years
D. 100 years
Answer: C

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NO.4 HP inks are formulated to deliver great results across a wide range of media. What are the quality
performance capabilities of these inks?
A. opaque, solvent and great image quality
B. durable, permanence and great image quality
C. spreadable, translucent and great image quality
D. transparent, effervescent and great image quality
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are the key advantages of original HP inks?
A. unique HP specially formulated color inks for outstanding fade resistant offset printing
B. unique HP specially formulated color inks to produce a range of durable metallic effects
C. unique HP specially formulated color inks for outstanding image quality and fade resistance
D. unique HP specially formulated color inks for graphic artists specializing in industrial design
Answer: C

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Exam Code: Hp2-E30
Exam Name: HP (HP BladeSystem Sales Consultant (2010))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 42 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which advanced infrastructure management software allows customers to analyze and optimize
physical and virtual resources, by decreasing virtualization complexity and increasing infrastructure
agility?
A. Thermal Logic
B. Virtual Connect
C. HP Insight Dynamics
D. Dynamic Power Capping
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement best describes current data center infrastructures
A. Costs remain steady as IT administrators can now fit more blades into current infrastructures.
B. Energy costs are rising as it becomes more difficult to adequately power and cool the data center.
C. Resource allocation has become simpler because data centers are creating silos of compute
resources.
D. Routine administrative tasks take less time because data centers are often centrally located on one
campus.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are the key differentiators for HP BladeSystem when compared to competitive offerings?
A. Form factors, Thermal Logic technology and Enclosure technology
B. Virtual Connect technology, Thermal Logic Technology and Insight Control
C. Virtual Connect technology, MTBF ratings and low purchase price
D. Intel processors, Enclosure technology and Virtual Connect technology
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement best describes blade server evolution?
A. Blade servers evolved from storage hardware and services.
B. Blade servers evolved from the creation of virtualization software.
C. Blade servers evolved from the consolidation of traditional rack mount servers.
D. Blade servers evolved from mainframe technology.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which HP BladeSystem enclosure is appropriate for branch offices or smaller deployments?
A. c3000
B. c7000
C. BladeCenter QS22
D. Rack 10000 Series
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-H11
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Thin Clients)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which type of key sales information for the HP MultiSeat Computing Solution do these features
represent?
Reduces environmental impact
Has the potential to double computing seats with the same budget
Requires no special IT knowledge
Contains software completely licensed and supported by HP
A. competitive advantages
B. silver bullets
C. opportunity indicators
D. key features
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which Intel processor type should you recommend for an HP MultiSeat host PC that supports six to ten
access devices, each running high-processing-demand applications such as multimedia?
A. Core 2 Duo
B. Core 2 Quad
C. Core i7
D. Xeon processor 5600 series
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which benefit is specific to the Academic Edition of the HP MultiSeat Computing Solution? (Select two.)
A. Intel Xeon based host PC
B. Ethernet connection from the access devices to the host PC for greater distance
C. licensing support through Microsoft Volume Licensing
D. support for up to 24 access devices
E. support for access devices running Windows 7 only
Answer: B, E

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Exam Code: HP2-T15
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP BladeSystem)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 How many BladeSystem p-Class enclosures are supported by a single Scalable Bus Bar?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C

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NO.2 Where does the System Management Homepage obtain its data?
A. Web-enabled agents
B. BIOS
C. http://www.hp.com
D. Product Bulletin
Answer: A

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NO.3 DRAG DROP
Place the possible mezzanine card type next to its corresponding mezzanine connector in a
BL685c G5 Server Blade.
Answer:

NO.4 What is used to set the initial enclosure IP addressing on a c7000 enclosure?
(Select two.)
A. Insight Display
B. Onboard Administrator
C. Integrated Lights Out
D. Systems Insight Manager
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 How high in standard units (Us) is a c3000 enclosure?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
E. 12
Answer: B

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NO.6 Where are the iLO 2 user accounts stored when not using a directory integration?
A. LDAP server
B. iLO 2 memory
C. SMH database
D. iLO 2 certificate
Answer: B

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NO.7 Your customer wants to mount a standard media image located on a shared network location from
the company's blade server Which iLO 2 Standard Blade Edition feature allows this?
A. key-activated floppy and CD virtual media
B. virtual power button
C. virtual media
D. remote console
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which task of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology do you accomplish when performing Step 1?
A. Determine which subsystem could cause the problem.
B. Understand the mode of failure.
C. identify the steps necessary to implement each solution,
D. Gather failure information.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What will mixing RDIMMs and UDIMMs in an HP server blade do?
A. halt the server blade during BIOS initialization
B. have no effect; the server blade is booting up normally
C. have no effect as long as the types are not mixed within pairs
D. cause a boot loop
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which action can you initiate from the Insight Display?
A. Determine the IP address of the Virtual Connect Manager
B. Change the IP address of the server OS.
C. Power down a blade server
D. Upgrade Onboard Administrator firmware.
Answer: A

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NO.11 What can be set with the Insight Display of the c7000 enclosure? (Select three.)
A. power mode
B. role base user account and privileges
C. power and cooling management mode and monitoring
D. enclosure and rack name
E. power savings
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.12 Which HP cooling technology allows automatic control of the CPU state to reduce power
consumption when application demand is low?
A. active Cool fan-
B. Modular Cooling system
C. HP Power Regulator for ProLiant
D. Static Power Saver
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which blades support the Intel 5500 Chipset processor? (Select two.)
A. HP ProLiant BL460cG6
B. HP ProLiant BL490cG6
C. HP ProLiant BL680cG5
D. HP ProLiant BL685cG6
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 HOTSPOT
Click on the SD card slot in a BL460c G6.
Answer:

NO.15 HP offers two types of mezzanine cards. Which statement is correct?
A. Type I mezzanine cards will fit into type I and type II slots.
B. Type II mezzanine cards can fit into typeI or type II slots.
C. Type I mezzanine cards outperform type II slots.
D. Type II mezzanine cards will only support older SCSI devices.
Answer: A

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NO.16 How can storage be presented to a server from the StorageWorks All-ln-One SB600c Storage
Blade? (Select two.)
A. using iSCSI
B. using HTTPS
C. using InfiniBand
D. using NFS
Answer: A,D

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NO.17 Which server blades support the Intel Xeon processor? (Select two.)
A. HP ProLiant BL465cG5
B. HP ProLiant BL480cG5
C. P ProLiant BL490cG6
D. HP ProLiant BL685cG5
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 A customer wants to install a new blade into an existing c7000 solution. What should be checked
before installation to verify compatibility?
A. processor speed
B. port mapping
C. jLO settings
D. disk mapping
Answer: B

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NO.19 DRAG DROP
Place each severity level listed in the Integrated Management Log next to its description.
Answer:

NO.20 You have activated the UID (Unique Identifier) light on the Insight Display of a c7000 enclosure in
a remote data center. Which color is the UID?
A. green
B. amber
C. black
D. blue
E. red
Answer: D

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NO.21 A full-height server blade has a quad port network mezzanine card Installed in slot 3. Where do
you need to install the GbE2c Switches to make use 1 of all four ports?
A. Bays 3 and 4 only
B. Bays 7 and 8 only
C. Bays 5, 6, 7 and 8
D. Bays 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which management functionality is performed by the c7000 Onboard Administrator? (Select two.)
A. providing dynamic resource allocation for server blades
B. managing shared power and cooling for the enclosure
C. activating Remote Deployment Pack (RDP) when an in-service server fails
D. providing license management through the command line interface (CLI)
E. detecting any mismatches between mezzanine cards and interconnects
Answer: B,E

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NO.23 What is the maximum number of BL685c G6 Server Blades that can be directly attached to an HP
Storage Worksheet iifA

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Exam Code: HP3-029
Exam Name: HP (HP LaserJet 1150/1300 series Datasheet)
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Total Q&A: 27 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What must be done to run paper through the printer with the covers off.?
A. Remove the left-side cover and depress the engine-test switch. A single test page prints.
B. Remove the right-side cover and depress the engine-test switch. A single test page prints.
C. Remove the left-side cover and depress the engine-test switch during the power-on cycle. A single test
page punts.
D. The printer does not allow you to run paper through the paper path with the covers off.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Approximately how many pages does the high-capacity toner cartridge print on the HP LaserJet 1300
series printer?
A. 3000
B. 2500
C. 4000
D. 1300
Answer: C

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NO.3 Approximately how many pages does the standard toner cartridge print on the HP LaserJet 1300 series
printer?
A. 1500
B. 1000
C. 2500
D. 3000
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP3-C24
Exam Name: HP (Pay For Print Sales)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 29 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 How is HP Pay For Print invoiced?
A.The HP Pay For Print service provider issues a customer invoice at the end of the month on
behalf of the partner.
B.The HP Pay For Print service provider issues a customer invoice once a quarter on behaff of
the partner
C.At the end of the contract period, the HP Pay For Print service provider issues a customer
invoice.
D.Every quarter the Pay For Print service provider will inform HP to create the customer invoice.
Answer: A

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NO.2 How many invoices are sent to the customer during the lifetime of the contract?
A.1
B.12
C.24
D.36
Answer: B

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NO.3 Why is HP currently not offering a dedicated pricing tool for the PFP program?
A.Thecalculationswithin the program are so simple that there is no need for a dedicated pricing
tool.
B.The calculations can be done via the general HP contract calculator available at the HP Smart
Portal.
C.The service provider does all contract calculations for the PFP partner.
D.Due to technical reasons the development of the tool was delayed, but HP will release a
dedicated PFP pricing tool in 2011.
Answer: B

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NO.4 How is the turnover of the Pay for Print contracts reflected in the quarterly sell-out report from HP?
A.Pay For Print is considered and reflected like normal supplies business.
B.Pay For Print provides specific upfront-discounts, as a result the turnover cannot be reflected
C.Only if the partner is a member of the OPS contract sell-out program, the turnover is reflectedas
normal supplies business.
D.50% of the contract turnover is reflected asnormalsupplies business.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is price protection?
A.protected prices for the supplies during the contract period
B.protected prices for service and supplies during the contract period
C.protected prices for the hardware during the contract period
D.protected prices for the hardware, service and supplies during the contract period
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-M31
Exam Name: HP (HP Quality Center 10.0 Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Click Next or More to continue.
Click the Task button.
Identify the steps for creating a Release Tree and place them in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.2 What does the term severity refer to?
A. importance level of the defect
B. impact of the defect on the release goals
C. impact of the defect on the test set
D. impact of the defect on system operation
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which products or components integrate with Quality Center? (Select four.)
A. WinRunner scripts
B. VuGen scripts
C. LoadRunner scenarios
D. QAInspect
E. SiteScope
F. Diagnostic monitors
G. QuickTest Professional scripts
Answer: ACDG

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NO.4 Which submodule enables you to define releases and cycles?
A. Management
B. Libraries
C. Cycles
D. Releases
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click Next or More to continue.
Click the Task button.
Place the test management process steps in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.6 What is a release?
A. a subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of test cycles
B. a set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and
performance
C. a group of test cycles that has been completed within a specific time period and in which all the high
priority defects have been closed
D. a version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to
customers at the same time
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which submodule enables you to check the number of test instances that still need to run?
A. Cycle
B. Baseline
C. Library
D. Releases
Answer: D

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NO.8 What should you use to gather and display the information in Quality Center? (Select three.)
A. external reports and graphs
B. predefined reports and graphs
C. document generator
D. user-defined reports and graphs
E. custom reports and graphs
F. custom document generator
Answer: BCE

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NO.9 Your project manager wants to see a list of test instances and the results. Which type of report should
you create to accomplish this?
A. Cross Test Set
B. Execution
C. Test Plan
D. Execution Status
Answer: B

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NO.10 You need to generate a report to monitor requirements and test coverage. Which report type should
you use to accomplish this? (Select two.)
A. Standard
B. Predefined
C. Non-standard
D. Non-customized
E. Custom
Answer: BE

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NO.11 You want to view the child requirements data related to the tests that the requirements cover. Which
graph type should you use to accomplish this?
A. progress graph
B. trend graph
C. requirements coverage graph
D. summary graph
Answer: D

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NO.12 What does the Management module address? (Select two.)
A. libraries
B. test resources
C. release models
D. dashboards
E. releases
Answer: AE

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NO.13 Which requirement type needs to be defined as a custom type?
A. business
B. group
C. functional
D. testing
E. security
Answer: E

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NO.14 What is a cycle?
A. a subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of test cycles
B. a set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and
performance
C. a set of development and quality assurance efforts that is performed to achieve a common goal based
on the release timeline
D. a version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to
customers at the same time
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which graph provides a visual overview of all the tests within a folder in the Test Plan Tree?
A. visual analysis graph
B. live analysis graph
C. trend analysis graph
D. summary graph
Answer: B

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NO.16 The CTO asks you to confirm the version of Quality Center your organization is using. From which
toolbar can you access this information?
A. Tools
B. About Quality Center Software
C. Help
D. HP Support Software
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which features are specific to the Premier Edition of Quality Center?
A. synchronize, share libraries, share defects, and cross project customization
B. synchronize, share test sets, share requirements, and cross project customization
C. share libraries, synchronize, share projects, and cross project customization
D. synchronize, share libraries, share defects, and cross instance customization
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is an advantage of using cross project customization?
A. Customizing a template project and applying the customization to Quality Center projects enables you
to standardize policies and procedures across projects.
B. Defining the users who can access the project and determining the types of tasks each user can
perform enables you to control access to the project.
C. Defining the users who can log in to the project and specifying the types of tasks each user can
perform enables you to control access to the project.
D. Customizing a template instance and applying the customization to Quality Center instances enables
you to standardize policies and procedures across instances.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which types of attachments are allowed in Quality Center?
A. file, URL, system information, JPG, system attachments
B. JPG, file, URL, snapshot, TXT, clipboard, system attachments
C. file, URL, snapshot, system information, clipboard images
D. file, snapshot, clipboard images, JPG, clipboard snaps
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which module enables you to define graphs and reports?
A. Test Plan
B. Test Resources
C. Dashboard
D. Requirements
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-S28
Exam Name: HP (Intergrating & Managing HP Blade System Solutions in Enterprise)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 208 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You want to restart the Virtual Connect Manager after changes are made. Which CLI command should
you use to accomplish this?
A. reipl vcm
B. reload vcm
C. reboot vcm
D. reset vcm
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which HP offering helps IT staff to use their systems more efficiently, resulting in a higher return on IT
investments?
A. Education Services
B. OpenView Storage Mirroring
C. Customer Self Repair
D. SupportPlus Services
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which HP Enterprise Virtual Array snapshot concept is shown in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. Snapclone
B. Demand-allocated snapshot
C. Mirrorclone
D. Fully-allocated snapshot
Answer: D

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NO.4 What must be done to keep previous user credentials when upgrading an HP Systems Insight Manager
Central Management Server (CMS) from version 3.0 to a current version?
A. Use the CMS Import Utility.
B. Use the Database Converter Tool.
C. Use the CMS Migration Tool.
D. Use the Database Upgrade Utility.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the recommended resource to determine the power and cooling requirements of your
configuration?
A. HP BladeSystem Power Sizer
B. HP ProLiant Cooling Advisor
C. HP Thermal Logic
D. HP BladeSystem Spreadsheet
Answer: A

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NO.6 Detecting a clustered host failure is accomplished by monitoring the heartbeats sent between the hosts.
You plan to test the heartbeat connection to cause a failover. Which networks are used in VMware for the
heartbeats? (Select two.)
A. On ESX hosts, a VMkernel network is used.
B. On ESXi hosts, a VMkernel network is used.
C. On ESX hosts, the service console network is used.
D. On ESXi hosts, the service console network is used.
Answer: BC

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NO.7 The customer has an environment of multiple web servers and two database servers all running on
Microsoft Windows 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. The requirement is to provide high availability for data
and efficient access to the web farm. Which solution meets the needs of this customer?
A. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for both the web servers and database servers
B. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for the web servers and a quorum disk model server
cluster to provide high availability for the database servers
C. A rotating standby cluster to support the web farm and a quorum disk model server cluster to provide
high availability for the database servers
D. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for the web servers and a Majority Node Set (MNS)
server cluster to provide high availability for the database servers
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are valid HP SIM report formats? (Select two.)
A. XML
B. RPT
C. RTF
D. CSV
E. DOC
Answer: AD

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NO.9 On what can Insight Control 6x Central Management Server (CMS) be installed? (Select two.)
A. Citrix XenServer 4.5 using Windows 2003 Standard SP2 virtual machine
B. Citrix XenServer 5.5 using Windows 2008 Standard R2 virtual machine
C. VMware ESX 3.5 Update 4 using Windows 2003 Standard SP2 virtual machine
D. Microsoft Hyper-V Server 2008 R2 using Windows 2008 R2 Enterprise 32-bit virtual machine
E. VMware ESX 4 using Windows 2003 Enterprise SP1 virtual machine
F. Microsoft Server 2008 R2 with Hyper-V using Windows 2003 Enterprise SP2 32-bit virtual machine
Answer: CF

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NO.10 Which software components must be installed before you can install HP Insight Control? (Select two.)
A. Application Server Console
B. Microsoft iSCSI Initiator
C. Certificate Services
D. Internet Information Services
E. Email Services
Answer: BD

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NO.11 The customer wants to upgrade the memory in an existing BL460 G6. Using the HP DDR3 Memory
Configuration Tool, what is the easiest way to examine the existing memory configuration?
A. Use Insight Diagnostics on the involved blade.
B. Use memconfig and upload that information.
C. Use the HP System Management Homepage.
D. Upload the diag.log to the Memory Config Tool.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which method is recommended when deploying a Windows 2008 operating system on an Integrity
Server Blade?
A. Use make_net_recovery
B. Use HP Insight Rapid Deployment software
C. Use third-party imaging tools
D. Use EFI management options
Answer: B

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NO.13 A customers c7000 enclosure has 10 fans installed. The fan in bay 2 fails. There are no blades that are
powered on in device bays 5 through 8 or in device bays 13 through 16. Which statements are true in this
situation? (Select two.)
A. The fan subsystem is no longer redundant.
B. The fan subsystem is still redundant.
C. The blade in device bay 2 powers down.
D. The failed fan is marked failed.
E. The failed fan is marked as degraded.
F. The blade in device bay 1 powers down.
Answer: BD

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NO.14 You want to receive an email notification if a blade in a particular enclosure has a hardware failure.
Where do you navigate in HP SIM to accomplish this.?
A. Tasks > Alerts > Paging
B. User > Event Notification > Email
C. Options > Events > Automatic Event Handling
D. Options > User Notifications > Email Distributor
Answer: C

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NO.15 When configuring Virtual Connect local accounts using CLI, which access privileges can be assigned?
(Select three.)
A. Domain
B. Server
C. User
D. Storage
E. Administrator
F. Operator
Answer: ABD

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NO.16 When designing a BladeSystem hardware solution in order to prevent system failures, which questions
should you ask? (Select two.)
A. How much money or productivity is lost per minute of downtime?
B. What administrative efforts are required to fix problems?
C. When was the last failure?
D. What is the duration of the backup window?
E. What is the disk I/O throughput?
Answer: AB

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NO.17 Which HP resource can help to plan and verify a consolidated storage infrastructure in combination
with an HP BladeSystem solution?
A. HP Replication Systems Manager
B. HP Storage Sizing Tool
C. HP SAN Design Reference Guide
D. HP SalesBuilder for Windows
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which statement is correct regarding the subnet manager when designing an HP BladeSystem
solution using InfiniBand in a Windows environment?
A. A subnet manager has to be installed on a Linux host.
B. A subnet manager is automatically installed on the first InfiniBand module.
C. A subnet manager can run host-based and switch-based.
D. A subnet manager is optional.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Click the Task button. Click on the Windows option that allows a system administrator to install HP
Insight Control on a Windows server that will be used to deploy Linux servers
Answer:

NO.20 Which statement is true about managing ESX hosts that are controlled by a second Virtual Center
server?
A. Each Virtual Center server needs an extra license for HP SIM.
B. Insight Control must be version 6.0 or greater.
C. The total number of virtual machines managed by a Virtual Center server must not exceed 200.
D. Virtual Center servers managed by one SIM server need to be on the same subnet.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-Y39
Exam Name: HP (Managing & Troubleshooting Enterprise Wireless Networks)
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Total Q&A: 84 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer is experiencing network performance issues with their wireless network. The customer
decides to take corrective actions on their wireless active controller. Based on the exhibit, what will
happen on the wireless network if the customer sent a 1200 byte packet from a wireless client associated
to essid HP_Openaccess? (Select two.)
A. The wireless packet will be fragmented.
B. The wireless packet will trigger RTS/CTS frames to be sent.
C. The wireless packet will not be fragmented.
D. The wireless packet will not trigger RTS/CTS frames to be sent.
E. The access point will send more Beacon frames than if the default configuration had been left
unchanged.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 By default, which roles do the RF Manager and its sensors perform in detecting Rogue access points
(APs)?
A. Sensors monitor wireless transmissions and RF Manager monitors wired transmissions. They combine
the data to find APs that use your SSIDs but are not on your network.
B. Sensors monitor wireless transmissions and RF Manager monitors wired transmissions. They combine
the data to find unauthorized APs on your network.
C. Sensors monitor wired and wireless transmissions so RF Manager can find unauthorized APs
connected to your wired network.
D. Sensors detect APs that use your SSIDs but are not on your Authorized AP list.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the risk of applying intrusion prevention to an access point (AP) listed as Indeterminate?
A. RF Manager cannot determine whether the AP follows your Authorized WLAN policy. You might
quarantine your own AP, which could frustrate users.
B. RF Manager has classified the AP as Indeterminate because you authorized it manually, but it does not
follow your Authorized WLAN policy.
Quarantining your own AP could frustrate users.
C. RF Manager has classified the AP as Indeterminate because its signal is so low. Sensors will make
themselves busy in quarantining an AP that is probably too far away to be a risk.
D. RF Manager cannot determine whether the AP is connected to your system. You might quarantine
another company's AP, which is illegal.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. All clients show maximum signal strength, but
some students are experiencing frequent interruptions of video playback. Based on the exhibits, what is a
solution to optimize network throughput for all students.?
A. setting maximum power on radio 1 on all APs
B. setting mandatory data rates for 802.11a to 12
C. changing the channel on radio 2 of AP5 to channel 6
D. lowering the RTS threshold on all radios
Answer: C

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NO.5 RF Manager has determined that a Rogue access point (AP) must be quarantined. The only sensor
within range is listed as busy. What happens?
A. RF Manager reclassifies the new Rogue AP as banned so that it cannot connect on the wired side.
B. RF Manager specifies that a quarantine is pending for the new Rogue AP until the sensor is no longer
busy.
C. The sensor stops quarantining one of the currently quarantined devices and starts quarantining the
new Rogue AP.
D. The sensor splits its time between blocking the currently quarantined devices and the new Rogue AP.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button and view the three exhibits.
RF Manager and its sensors have detected an association between an Uncategorized Client and an
access point (AP) that uses these settings:
SSID = Company C
Security = WPA2 with CCMP and 802.1X
The AP is detected while passing the client traffic on VLAN 20 (10.1.20.0/24). WiFi is permitted at this
location. The exhibits show the Authorized SSID Template, other Authorized WLAN Policy settings, and
the Intrusion Prevention Policy for the location.
What does RF Manager have its sensors do?
A. quarantine the AP only
B. quarantine the client only
C. take no action against either device
D. quarantine both the AP and the client
Answer: A

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. Some students are experiencing frequent
interruptions to video playback while others have no issues. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to
optimize performance for all students?
A. Set all radios to maximum power.
B. Set all APs to the same channel.
C. Enable load balancing of clients across APs.
D. Increase the beacon interval.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is a potential risk of enabling the RSSI-based classification feature in an Authorized WLAN
policy?
A. RF Manager must rely exclusively on RSSI to detect the locations of harmful devices, instead of
drawing on the findings of network detectors. This might make the prediction less accurate.
B. Sensors might decide that they should not take action against a potentially harmful device because its
RSSI is low and the device might still be a risk.
C. RF Manager might classify your own access points (APs) as Rogue APs because their transmit power
is too high and take action against them.
D. RF Manager might classify legitimate access points (APs) owned by nearby companies as Rogue APs
and take action against them.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which action does RF Manager take to quarantine a client?
A. It instructs the client's access point to place the client's traffic in a quarantine VLAN.
B. It instructs a sensor to send a forced disassociation message to the client's access point (AP) so that
the AP forces the client to disconnect.
C. It instructs a sensor to send frames to interfere with the frames sent by the quarantined client.
D. It adds the client's MAC address to the access point's MAC lockout list, thereby blocking the client's
traffic.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer reports the performance of their HP A-WA2620E access point (AP) is inadequate. While
investigating the report, you determine that the AP is functioning in MIMO 3x2 mode instead of MIMO 3x3
as desired. What is one possible cause of this problem?
A. The AP is powered using 802.3af PoE.
B. The AP is configured to use a 40Mhz channel bandwidth.
C. The AP is not implementing the local switching feature.
D. The AP is powered using 802.3at PoE.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. Students running 802.11n clients are not seeing
optimal bandwidth connection data rates. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to optimize 802.11n
data rates?
A. Disable High Throughput (HT mode) on all radios.
B. Disable RTS/CTS capability on non-802.11n client NICs.
C. Configure Band Steering mode on radio 1 on all APs and radio 2 on AP3 and AP5.
D. Configure Greenfield mode on radio1 on all APs and radio 2 on AP3 and AP5.
Answer: D

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NO.12 In sensor only (SO) mode, what does an HP sensor monitor?
A. It monitors only one untagged VLAN as well as wireless signals.
B. It monitors wireless signals, but does not monitor VLANs.
C. It monitors multiple VLANs as well as wireless signals.
D. It monitors multiple VLANs, but does not monitor wireless signals.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What are the requirements for deploying a sensor that is discovered by RF Manager with zero
configuration? (Select two.)
A. The sensor must operate in network detector (ND) mode.
B. The sensor must be installed on the same VLAN as RF Manager.
C. The network must be set up to assign the sensor IP settings through DHCP.
D. The DNS server must map the WiFi-security-server to the RF Manager IP address.
E. RF Manager and the sensor must both be at their default IP settings.
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 You set your country of operation and then apply the default Sensor Configuration Template settings to
all sensors in RF Manager. How do your sensors handle channels that cannot be used legally in your
country?
A. The sensors scan these channels and detect threats, but they do not take action against the threats.
B. The sensors scan these channels, detect threats, and take the action you have specified against any
detected threats.
C. The sensors scan these channels and prevent any authorized access points or clients from operating
on these channels.
D. The sensors do not scan these channels for threats.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Students are experiencing slow
network performance, and some clients are having difficulty connecting to the wireless network. The IT
staff installed wireless access points (APs) over a year ago. Previous classes, consisting of 200 students
had no problems. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to optimize performance for all students?
A. Enable radio 1 on all APs.
B. Add service-template1 to all 2.4Ghz radios.
C. Remove service-template1 from all 5Ghz radios.
D. Set cipher-suite to ccmp for service-template1.
Answer: A

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